Questions on the Bible

Could you help me understand the context and past reason for Leviticus 21:9?

The immediate context for the verse in question (“If a priest’s daughter defiles herself by becoming a prostitute, she disgraces her father; she must be burned in the fire.”) concerns God’s will for those who would serve as his representatives as priests.

While the Lord instructed all the people of Israel to be holy and to distance themselves from sin (Leviticus 11:44-45), that instruction applied especially to priests (Leviticus 21:6).

The first six verses of Leviticus 21 detail specific ways in which a priest could keep himself ceremonially clean. The next two verses address the ceremonially uncleanness of a priest by way of his relationship to his wife.

Finally, verse nine explains how the daughter of a priest could negatively impact a priest and his ministry by her sinful living. The verse lays out the penalty for such behavior. The verse illustrates how serious God considered sin—especially when it involved people who were representing him in the priesthood.

While that law is no longer in effect for New Testament followers of the Lord, the Bible still places appropriate emphasis on the behavior of called workers and their families. “He [an overseer] must manage his own family well and see that his children obey him, and he must do so in a manner worthy of full respect. (If anyone does not know how to manage his own family, how can he take care of God’s church?)” (1 Timothy 3:4-5) “An elder must be blameless, faithful to his wife, a man whose children believe and are not open to the charge of being wild and disobedient” (Titus 1:6). There are high standards for those who, today, represent God in the public ministry.

Are there two accounts of Jesus feeding the crowd? One for 5,000 and one for 4,000?

There are two accounts. That becomes very clear when we consider the conversation that took place between Jesus and his disciples in Mark 8:18-20: “And don’t you remember? When I broke the five loaves for the five thousand, how many basketfuls of pieces did you pick up?” “Twelve,” they replied. “And when I broke the seven loaves for the four thousand, how many basketfuls of pieces did you pick up?” They answered, “Seven.”

It is a generous God who gives us our daily bread through supernatural or ordinary means. For that, we give him our thanks and praise.

Hi! What is the mark of the beast? Is the mark of the beast a chip? If not, is the mark of the beast an electronic tattoo? What is the beast? Who is the beast?

The mark of the beast is not a chip or an electronic tattoo. The marking is a symbolic indicator of those people who have aligned themselves with ungodly powers. That is in contrast to an earlier (Revelation 7:3) marking or sealing of people who belong to the Lord.

The symbolic markings illustrate Jesus’ words: “Whoever is not with me is against me” (Matthew 12:30). There is no middle ground when it comes to Jesus.

There are two beasts in Revelation 13. The first beast is often understood as anti-Christian governmental authorities. The second beast is often understood as the great Antichrist or any authorities in churches who oppose the gospel of Jesus Christ.

Did Adam go to heaven?

The Bible does not state specifically that Adam and Eve went to heaven. Still, there is good reason to believe that.

Adam and Eve were the first recipients of the gospel message (Genesis 3:15). At the births of Cain (Genesis 4:1) and Seth (Genesis 4:25), Eve expressed faith in the God who promised a Savior to crush Satan. The fact that Adam and Eve’s descendants—early on—began to “call on the name of the Lord” (Genesis 4:26) points to their own lives of faith and their faithfulness in teaching the faith to their family members.

Recently I've been struggling with sola Scriptura (Scripture alone). I've read the verses pointed to as evidence, but I'm having a hard time connecting them as evidence for sola Scriptura. In their context, they don't seem like proof. How should the dots be connected between these verses?

God makes it very clear that people are not to add to or subtract from his word (Deuteronomy 4:2; Revelation 22:18-19). The context shows that God is responsible for the content of his word and he considers any tampering of it to be a serious offense.

Ephesians 2:20 teaches that God’s word, written through the prophets and apostles, is the foundation of the Christian Church, and Jesus Christ is the chief cornerstone. The context illustrates that there is a single foundation to the “building” (Ephesians 2:21), and the Church rests on the foundation of God’s word.

Luke 16:29 teaches that people are not to look anywhere else for saving truth. The context concerns the rich fool in hell who wanted his brothers on earth to avoid hell and enjoy salvation by means of a special revelation instead of the clear words of Scripture.

Matthew 15:7-9 is the record of Jesus’ words of condemnation of those who tried to supplement the word of God. The context addresses the practice of the Pharisees and the teachers of the law in adding to what Scripture says.

Hebrews 1:1-2 teaches that God spoke through his inspired writers and provided the “last word” through his Son, Jesus Christ. The context shows that we are not to look to any other supposed revelations about God.

Key Bible passages, understood in their context, clearly teach sola Scriptura (Scripture alone). I hope this is helpful for you.

In Exodus 13:11-15 the Bible speaks of the firstborn of every womb and to redeem the firstborn among your sons. Did this mean they sacrificed firstborn sons or that they dedicated their firstborn to serve the Lord? What does it mean to redeem each firstborn son?

During the tenth plague, the Lord killed all the firstborn males and the firstborn animals of the Egyptians (Exodus 12:29). In the first Passover, the Lord spared the Israelites; that included the firstborn males and the firstborn animals.

After the first Passover, the Lord instructed Moses to tell the people of Israel that, because he had spared the firstborn of men and animals, they belonged to him. Firstborn animals were to be sacrificed to the Lord. That was not the case with firstborn sons; God never commanded or desired human sacrifices (Deuteronomy 12: 31; 18:10). What God did command was the consecrating of firstborn males to him.

When God established the priesthood with the tribe of Levi, he also made it possible for Israelites from other tribes to redeem their firstborn males from special service to him (Numbers 3:39-51; 18:15-16). That redemption was an ongoing reminder of God’s grace in sparing the people of Israel from the destruction of the tenth plague.

I have been exploring different Bible translations. I have looked through both NIV's, the ESV, the EHV, and most recently I have been looking at the NKJV. Is the NKJV an acceptable translation in the WELS?

It is certainly an acceptable translation. Back in September 2011, the WELS Translation Evaluation Committee noted that the New King James Version (NKJV) “will resonate with people who grew up with the KJV.”

The committee also listed these drawbacks: “It regularly has archaic expressions and word order.” “It uses the Textus Receptus as its NT textual base, in opposition to the generally accepted practice.” “A number of salvation passages are not gender inclusive (1 Tim 2:4 –‘who desires all men to be saved’).” The second item contrasts the number of biblical manuscripts that were available to the KJV translators in 1611 and the addition of earlier biblical manuscripts discovered since 1611. More recent Bible translations have been able to utilize those earlier biblical manuscripts.

 

There are claims that Nebuchadnezzar himself wrote a whole chapter of the Bible (Daniel 4). I am not aware of any OT Scripture that is considered inspired from God when God didn't speak through a prophet, as Hosea 12:10, Hebrews 1:1, 2 Peter 3:2 teaches. To my understanding of how Scripture comes about, Daniel 4 is the accounting of what took place spoken by the Holy Spirit to Daniel. Am I wrong?

You are not wrong. God controlled the content of the Bible by inspiring prophets and apostles to write exactly what he wanted written down. Daniel wrote the words of his book. That includes the content of chapter four.

In addition to the Scripture references you passed along, we could also add 2 Timothy 3:16 and 2 Peter 1:20-21.

What is the version of the Bible that WELS suggests that we use?

I can suggest that you look at this document that evaluated six different Bible translations. While the Holman Christian Standard Bible in the document underwent a major revision in 2017 and was renamed the Christian Standard Bible, the remaining information in the document holds true. It should also be noted that the Evangelical Heritage Version (EHV) did not exist at the time this particular evaluation of Bible translations was prepared.

I would also suggest that you solicit your pastor’s help with this. He will be happy to guide you through the process of Bible translation selection and, perhaps, offer a personal recommendation or two.

What a day and age we live in, when God’s word is so readily available in our lives!

I am aware that the Bible lays out different leadership responsibilities for men and women. However, I feel like this is taken too far in the WELS. There is no biblical basis for women not to be allowed to vote in congregational meetings. If a single woman is expected to give her money to the church, it is not fair that she has no say in how that money is used. It also feels as though the leadership roles women are allowed to take up are cherry-picked. A woman leading the congregation in song as an organist or cantor is in much more of a leadership role than passing the offering plate. So my question is, since the biblical basis for women not having any leadership in the church is not strictly followed in the WELS (women having leadership as organists, Sunday school teachers, choir directors, cantors, altar guild, etc.), why are women kept from other positions where their talents could be used to further God's message?

Our church body makes these confessions in This We Believe: “We believe that every Christian is a priest before God (1 Peter 2:9). All believers have direct and equal access to the throne of grace through Christ, the mediator (Ephesians 2:17, 18). God has given the means of grace to all believers. All Christians are to declare the praises of him who called them out of darkness into his wonderful light (1 Peter 2:9). In this sense all Christians are ministers, or servants, of the gospel. God wants all Christians to share the message of salvation with other people (Matthew 28:19, 20; 10:32).

“We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11, 12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14: 33-35).

Women can certainly exercise leadership roles in the church in relation to other women and youth. Congregations do well to encourage women to use their gifts and talents in keeping with the biblical principles listed above.

You may find value in reading Male and Female He Created Them: A Bible study on God’s loving gift of the interdependent and complementary partnership of male and female. I commend it to you for your reading.

I Timothy 2:12. What does this mean when it says women are not to teach? Explain, please!

The verse does not prohibit women from all teaching. The directive “not to teach” is in the context of the relationship between men and women. In keeping with biblical principles, women are able to teach other women and youth.

You may be interested in reading Male and Female in God’s World, a restatement of Scriptural Principles of Man and Woman Roles.

Below are some excerpts from that document.

“In the original language, Paul uses the term for learning as a disciple (in verse 11), and (in verse 12) he uses the term for the kind of formal teaching that Jesus often did with his disciples gathered around his feet. It helps us picture the kind of setting that Paul clearly has in mind with his application. He is picturing for us someone clearly functioning as Jesus did as an authoritative teacher with others clearly in the position of the learning disciples at his feet.

“When we understand the kind of formal teaching with authority that Paul’s words clearly have in mind in the context of 1 Timothy 2, that helps us understand that Christian women are not violating the principle when they take part in discussions in Bible class and also confess their faith whenever God gives the opportunity with both fellow believers and unbelievers. Those are royal priestly privileges that God has given to every Christian male and female, young and old, as Peter so eloquently testifies in 1 Peter 2:9 and Paul also testifies in Colossians 3:15,16.”

I am looking for a Kindle version of Concordia Self-Study Bible. What is the best NIV option?

The Kindle version of that Bible is no longer available. Lacking other information about your situation and preferences, it is difficult to recommend an NIV option.

Northwestern Publishing House offers many different options. I invite you to see what is available and consider what might best meet your needs and interests.

Does the doctrine of Universal Objective Justification mean that all people are justified before and apart from faith?

Justify means “to declare ‘not guilty.’” As a church body, we make this confession in This We Believe:

“We believe that God has justified all sinners, that is, he has declared them righteous for the sake of Christ. This is the central message of Scripture upon which the very existence of the church depends. It is a message relevant to people of all times and places, of all races and social levels, for ‘the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men’ (Romans 5:18). All need forgiveness of sins before God, and Scripture proclaims that all have been justified, for ‘the result of one act of righteousness was justification that brings life for all men’ (Romans 5:18).”

A person does not benefit from that gracious declaration of “not guilty” or enjoy the forgiveness of sins without faith in Jesus Christ (Mark 16:16; John 8:24; Romans 3:28; 4:5; Ephesians 2:8-9).

When was "Thou shall not commit murder" changed to "Thou shall not kill"?

I am not sure which source you are referencing for this change of wording. The Hebrew word in the Fifth Commandment (Exodus 20:13 and Deuteronomy 5:17) prohibits murder—the illegal and inappropriate taking of human life—and does not forbid all taking of life. So, for example, governments can rightly implement capital punishment (Romans 13:4) if they so choose.

Is it correct or incorrect to believe that an angel has spoken audibly to a person in our present age?

It is possible for what you asked to take place in life today. God can do anything; we cannot limit his abilities.

The Bible even provides this instruction: “Do not forget to show hospitality to strangers, for by so doing some people have shown hospitality to angels without knowing it” (Hebrews 13:2). Abraham was such an individual (Genesis 18).

I’ve always wondered why Luther restructured the Ten Commandments by getting rid of the Second Commandment and splitting the Tenth into two nearly identical commandments. I would appreciate your thoughts on this.

The “Ten Commandments” of Exodus 34:28 is literally “ten words” in Hebrew. Because the Bible does not enumerate the ten words, people have assigned different numerical values to them. That explains the three systems of numbering the Ten Commandments that have long existed.

Martin Luther did not restructure the Ten Commandments; he simply retained the numbering system of the Roman Catholic Church.

A second system that most Protestant churches use splits the First Commandment into two commandments and contains one commandment on coveting.

A third system frames the first “word” as an introduction: “I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery” (Exodus 20:2). There is then one commandment on idolatry and one commandment on coveting.

None of the numbering systems omit the content of the Ten Commandments. The systems simply arrange the content differently.

What Scripture is used to deny women's suffrage?

Elsewhere on this website you will find This We Believe: A Statement of Belief of the WELS. The “Church and Ministry” section addresses your question on the basis of Scripture: “We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11,12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:33-35).” One of those assemblies is the voters’ assembly.

Do keep in mind that the relationship between women and voters’ assemblies does not speak to women’s status in God’s sight. Scripture says to Christians: “So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.” (Galatians 3:26-29)

You may be interested in reading Male and Female in God’s World, a restatement of Scriptural Principles of Man and Woman Roles. The document will address your question in greater thoroughness than I can with this question and answer forum.

I am not a believer. I don't have faith, yet I am seeking God. Does sincerity and willingness to be saved matter to God? What does Isaiah 55:1-6 mean? Does that mean I should hear the Word to be saved? What does seek the Lord mean? I must turn from my sins and believe in Jesus? If I plead, pray, read the Bible, or listen to sermons, is this self-righteousness, and if not, what does Isaiah 55:6 mean?

I will put some references to Bible verses in my response to you. I encourage you to look them up.

What matters to God is saving faith in Jesus Christ, his Son. Such faith is God’s gift to people (Ephesians 2:8). The Holy Spirit creates saving faith in people’s hearts through the gospel (Romans 10:17).

In Isaiah 55, God invites spiritually thirsty and hungry people to come to him and be satisfied with the news of full and free forgiveness through faith in his Son, Jesus Christ. If people do follow through on that invitation, it is only because the Holy Spirit has worked in their hearts (1 Corinthians 12:3).

Isaiah 55:6 (“Seek the LORD while he may be found; call on him while he is near.”) underscores the urgency of attending to our spiritual needs. This life is the only time people have to be brought to repentance and faith in Jesus Christ. That is why the Bible says, “Now is the time of God’s favor, now is the day of salvation” (2 Corinthians 6:2). Because we never know when this life will come to an end (Luke 12:13-21), the Bible urges people to tend to their spiritual needs now, today.

Self-righteousness is present when people point to their own works or efforts as supposedly being meritorious in God’s sight. The Bible condemns that attitude (Luke 18:9-14). It is definitely not self-righteous for you to “pray, read the Bible, or listen to sermons.” Those are godly and important activities.

Considering your circumstances, I believe the materials and resources on WhatAboutJesus would be of great value to you. (The website is maintained by individuals within our church body.) Do check it out. Also, you would benefit by speaking to one of our pastors. To find the closest WELS church to you, consider using this locator tool.

God bless you as you explore God’s word and read about God’s great love for you in Jesus, his Son. May God’s Spirit, through the word, fill your heart with Christian faith and confidence.

Why are Lutherans opposed to the Gospel hymn "I Come to the Garden Alone"?

I think you would agree that we want hymns in Lutheran hymnals to present biblical teachings. The hymn in question does not do that.

Stanzas of the hymn use images of nature to describe hearing the voice of the Son of God. The refrain states: “And He walks with me, and He talks with me, And He tells me I am his own.”

The Bible teaches that God speaks to us through his word. It is through his word that he tells us we are his. “Do not fear, for I have redeemed you; I have summoned you by name; you are mine” (Isaiah 43:1). “See what great love the Father has lavished on us, that we should be called children of God! And that is what we are!” (1 John 3:1)

Biblically-accurate hymns describe God speaking to people through his word. “God is speaking by his Spirit, Speaking to the hearts of all, In the ageless Word expounding His own message for us all.” (Christian Worship 281:3) “Lord, open now my heart to hear, And through your Word to me draw near.” (Christian Worship 281:1).

Solid Christian hymns assist us to sing and make music to the Lord (Ephesians 5:19).

What or who are the divine council, such as in Job and in Psalm 82? Are they angels? Psalm 82 seems to refer to mortal beings in 82:6-7.

The “great assembly” of Psalm 82 (verse one) refers to the people of Israel. As Jesus indicated (John 10:34-36) and as Psalm 82 states, the judges and leaders who represented God had the title of “gods.” It is clear from Psalm 82 that God was not pleased with those judges and leaders who were incompetent and corrupt.

Regarding Job, perhaps you are thinking of chapters one and two, where we hear of angels, including Satan, presenting themselves before the Lord. That would be an assembly in heaven, in the presence of God.

I hope this is the information you were seeking.

I'm currently learning more about the WELS. And I like everything they believe and teach so far. My everyday question is this: what's the purpose of 1000 year reign of Christ?

It is good to read about your study of God’s word.

Your question addresses content from Revelation 20. We will want to keep in mind that Revelation 20 does not speak of a one-thousand-year reign of Christ. The chapter speaks of Christians reigning with Christ for a thousand years (Revelation 20:4, 6).

In the book of Revelation, numbers have symbolic meaning. That means that “a thousand years” in Revelation 20 means anything but one thousand years. The number ten and its multiples (for example, 100 and 1,000) represent “completeness.” Many biblical scholars understand the one-thousand-year period in Revelation 20 as representing the New Testament age.

This means that Revelation 20 speaks of Christians reigning with Christ during the New Testament age.

Consider what meaning this had for the first recipients of the book of Revelation (the Christians who belonged to the seven churches in Asia Minor listed in Revelation 2 and 3). Christians in the late first century A.D. were facing extreme persecution. Christians were being killed for their faith. Did that mean that those people had lost everything? Were they to be pitied? Not at all. Their deaths meant that their souls were in the presence of God in heaven. Their deaths seated them on symbolic thrones and they reigned during the New Testament age with Christ—the King whose reign is eternal (Psalm 146:10).

There are individuals and churches that teach Jesus will set up an earthly kingdom and reign over it for a period of 1,000 years. They seek to find support for this idea in Revelation 20. That chapter of the Bible does not teach that. No chapter of the Bible does. Revelation 20 describes martyred Christians reigning with the King of kings, Jesus Christ.

God bless your continued study of God’s word!

I was talking to someone who told me that the Bible says that people can put a curse on me. He also said that in the Bible there is a prayer that will remove a curse. How do I answer that? I have read the Bible from Genesis to Revelation a number of times but never read this about curses. Can you give me some information about curses in the Bible?

According to the Bible, cursing is using God’s name to wish evil on someone or something. God’s Second Commandment forbids such speech and actions (Romans 12:14; James 3:10).

A curse spoken against you, a child of God, amounts to idle words. God is not bound to carry out the whims and wishes of people who act contrary to his will (Psalm 109:28). Romans 8:31-39 describes God’s strong, enduring love for his children.

I am not aware of the prayer that was mentioned to you.

What does the Bible say about necromancy?

The Bible clearly condemns the practice of trying to communicate with those who have died. Consider the following sections of Scripture.

“Let no one be found among you who sacrifices their son or daughter in the fire, who practices divination or sorcery, interprets omens, engages in witchcraft, or casts spells, or who is a medium or spiritist or who consults the dead. Anyone who does these things is detestable to the LORD; because of these same detestable practices the LORD your God will drive out those nations before you. You must be blameless before the LORD your God. The nations you will dispossess listen to those who practice sorcery or divination. But as for you, the LORD your God has not permitted you to do so” (Deuteronomy 18:10-14).

“When someone tells you to consult mediums and spiritists, who whisper and mutter, should not a people inquire of their God? Why consult the dead on behalf of the living? Consult God’s instruction and the testimony of warning. If anyone does not speak according to this word, they have no light of dawn” (Isaiah 8:19-20).

What does WELS teach about Melchizedek's birth, death and his priesthood?

Hebrews 7:3 explains that we do not know anything about the beginning or end of Melchizedek’s life. He appears and disappears on the pages of Scripture.

Melchizedek served as “priest of God Most High” (Genesis 14:18). As priest, he served the only true God, the God of the Bible.

More than that, Melchizedek served as king (Genesis 14:18). That was unusual because a person served as a priest or a king but not both. By serving in those offices, Melchizedek pointed ahead to Jesus, who is Prophet, Priest and King.

Someone told me that in the original Greek, the Bible didn’t say to a man: do not lie with another man but that it says don’t lie with a boy (to prevent abuse). Please help.

It looks like your request is addressing Leviticus 20:13. The 1984 NIV rendered that verse this way: “If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.” The 2011 NIV puts that verse this way: “If a man has sexual relations with a man as one does with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.”

The Hebrew language, the primary language of the Old Testament, has several words that can be translated “man.” The Hebrew word that is translated “with a man” in the verse above refers to a “man” or a “male.”

Context will determine the particular shading of words. So, for example, the Hebrew word referenced can mean “boy” in some contexts. That is what we find in Jeremiah 20:15: “Cursed be the man who brought my father the news, who made him very glad, saying, ‘A child is born to you—a son!’” The context of that verse makes it clear that the Hebrew word is not speaking of a man but a male child.

The context of Leviticus 20 makes it clear that there is a contrast with “woman.” “If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.” God designed sexual relations to take place between a man and a woman in marriage. Leviticus 20:13 condemns the practice of a man having sexual relations with another man as he would with a woman (in marriage).

People who support same-sex activity and same-sex marriage look for the Bible to differentiate between abusive same-sex relationships and consenting same-sex relationships: condemning the former but approving the latter. The Bible makes no distinction like that; it forbids and condemns all sexual relations that take place between men only and between women only.

While Leviticus 20:13 (and Leviticus 18:22) were part of the Mosaic code that governed Old Testament Israel, we find the same condemnation of same-sex activity in Romans 1:24-32 and 1 Corinthians 6:9-10.

With that last passage in mind, it is important to note that it is not particular sins that keep people out of the kingdom of God; it is impenitence and unbelief. God wants all to come to repentance and believe in him to enjoy salvation (1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9).

Are we to literally take the account of Eve eating a piece of fruit as the reason mankind deserves to die and suffer in hell? Thanks.

The genre of Genesis 3 is narrative. The content of the chapter records historical events. There is nothing in the chapter that suggests any content is to be understood symbolically or figuratively.

When it comes to Adam and Eve’s sin, what is more important than the content of God’s command is the command itself.  What I mean is this:  God could have commanded Adam and Eve not to do something else, and their violation of that other command would have amounted to sin. “Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness” (1 John 3:4). Transgression, another word for sin, means to step across a forbidden line.

Martin Luther addressed your question with these words: “To reason it seems very ridiculous that any one fruit should be so deadly as to destroy the whole human race in infinite succession, and destroy it, moreover, with eternal death. But this power of destruction did not lie in the fruit. To be sure, Adam sank his teeth into the fruit; but in reality he sank them into a thorn, which was the prohibition of God and disobedience to God. This is the real cause of the evil, to wit, that Adam sins against God, whose command he ignores. He follows Satan. The tree of knowledge of good and evil was a good tree, bearing the choicest fruits, but because the prohibition of God is joined to it and man does not heed the prohibition, it turns into the deadliest of all poisons.” (What Luther Says, Volume III, Page 1290)

I have always had this question and have grown up WELS and taught in the educational system. Why did the first man and woman God make sin?

God made Adam and Eve with the ability and freedom not to sin or to sin. Being all-knowing, God certainly knew that Satan and other angels would rebel against him, and that Adam and Eve would disobey his command. Being all-powerful, God certainly could have prevented both those falls into sin. The Bible does not provide an answer as to why God allowed sin to enter the world.

What we do know from the Bible is this: not only did God know that sin was going to enter his creation, but he formulated a plan to rescue sinners. That plan involved the sacrifice of his Son (1 Peter 1:20; Revelation 13:8). In eternity, God also graciously chose people to be members of his family (Ephesians 1:11-14).

The Bible makes it clear that people are responsible for sin (James 1:13-15). God is not guilty of any wrongdoing (Deuteronomy 32:4; Isaiah 6:3).

The Bible teaches that Eve was “deceived” by Satan (1 Timothy 2:14). Adam followed the actions of Eve (Genesis 3:6).

When it comes to the “why” questions of life and the Bible, I turn to Romans 11:33-36: “Oh, the depth of the riches of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable his judgments, and his paths beyond tracing out! ‘Who has known the mind of the Lord? Or who has been his counselor?’ ‘Who has ever given to God, that God should repay them?’ For from him and through him and for him are all things. To him be the glory forever! Amen.” Those words tell me that while I live on this earth, I cannot expect to understand God’s ways and thoughts fully. Like you, I look forward to the time when my knowledge of God and his ways and thoughts is much different than it is now (1 Corinthians 13:12).

I’m a little confused as to where Jesus went when he died. In the Apostles' Creed it says he “descended into hell. The third day he rose again....” Where in the Bible do I find that Jesus descended into hell? On the cross Jesus said to the thief that day he would be with him in paradise, which seems like Jesus would be in heaven right away. Thanks so much for helping clear this up for me.

When death takes place, a person’s body and soul separate (Ecclesiastes 12:7). When Jesus died on Good Friday, his body remained on earth, while his soul went to heaven (Luke 23:46). The same was true for the repentant thief on the cross (Luke 23:43).

Resurrection is the reuniting of body and soul. Early on Easter Sunday morning, Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in the tomb. Jesus descended into hell to proclaim victory over sin, Satan and death. Then, he appeared to his followers on earth as their risen Savior.

1 Peter 3:18-20 teaches Jesus’ descent into hell. Many see Colossians 2:15 as describing the triumphant nature of Jesus’ descent into hell.

God didn't think too much of man to make him out of a pile of dirt. Eve must not have had much of a brain; she didn't know snakes cannot talk.

There is no question here for me to answer, but your statements need a response.

The creation of Adam shows God’s special care for human beings. Rather than focusing on the material God used to create Adam, keep in mind how unique Adam’s creation was compared to everything else. Rather than speaking a word to bring about Adam’s existence (as God did in creating everything else), God “formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being” (Genesis 2:7). That special action speaks volumes about what God thought of man.

God made Adam and Eve to manage his creation (Genesis 1:28). God made Adam and Eve in his image (Genesis 1:27). That meant they were holy, they had perfect knowledge of God’s will, and their wills were entirely in line with God’s will. God’s desire was that Adam and Eve enjoy his love forever. When sin threatened to separate them from his love forever, God promised a Savior (Genesis 3:15). In time, he sent his Son to be their Savior. All this says that God cared deeply for the people he made—the crown of his creation.

Created in the image of God, Eve, like Adam, was highly intelligent. When it comes to Eve listening to a serpent (Satan), the Bible simply says that Eve was “deceived” (1 Timothy 2:13).

The Bible is God’s message to people. It is inspired and inerrant. God’s desire is that we regard his word as “holy and gladly hear and learn it” (Martin Luther’s Explanation to the Third Commandment). I encourage you to read Psalm 119 to be reminded about that attitude toward God’s word.

What is the WELS position on decision theology?

In This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body, you will find this confession: “We believe that people cannot produce this justifying faith, or trust, in their own hearts, because ‘the man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him’ (1 Corinthians 2:14). In fact, ‘the sinful mind is hostile to God’ (Romans 8:7). It is the Holy Spirit who gives people faith to recognize that ‘Jesus is Lord’ (1 Corinthians 12:3). The Holy Spirit works this faith by means of the gospel (Romans 10:17). We believe, therefore, that a person’s conversion is entirely the work of God’s grace. Rejection of the gospel is, however, entirely the unbeliever’s own fault (Matthew 23:37).”

Decision theology is not a teaching of the Bible.

2 Chronicles 21:2 reads, "All these were sons of Jehoshaphat king of Israel" while 2 Chronicles 20:31 identifies him as king of Judah. Why the discrepancy?

Strictly speaking, Jehoshaphat was king of the southern kingdom, which consisted of Judah and Benjamin. In calling Jehoshaphat the “king of Israel,” the inspired writer was stating the truth that in spite of the divided kingdoms, there was still the nation of Israel.

While the 2011 NIV speaks of Jehoshaphat being the king of Israel (2 Chronicles 21:2), the footnote is helpful: “That is Judah, as frequently in 2 Chronicles.”

I've been disturbed about one of the 10 Commandments, "Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy." Luther's Small Catechism, #45, explains God does not require us to observe the Sabbath and other holy days of the OT. I thought it peculiar that this commandment would be the only one omitted. Matt.12:8 and Col. 2:16,17 are the stated supporting Scripture. Reading the complete context of these verses, I understand it to be in reference to the Pharisees' (man's) laws added on to God's commandments in both Matthew and Colossians. Weren't Jesus, the Son, and the Holy Spirit present with the Father when Moses received the 10 Commandments? Furthermore, the construction of the days of the week were named by the Romans after their pagan gods and there isn't clarity as to which day/days God designates as the 6 days of work and which is the 7th day of rest (which is first, and which is last). Different people have different work days. Since it isn't stated which days, wouldn't it mean after one works 6 days (whichever days one labors), labor ceases and rest in body and mind is to solely focus on God?

It is important to note that the Ten Commandments (Exodus 20; Deuteronomy 5) are part of the Mosaic Law that God gave to his Old Testament people of Israel. The Mosaic Law had limited purpose and duration. Its obligations ended when Jesus Christ came into our world as the fulfilment of all the prophecies of the Messiah.

We can see from the Mosaic Law wording of the third commandment (“Sabbath day”) and the fourth commandment (reference to the Promised Land) that not all the content of the Ten Commandments applies to New Testament followers of the Lord.

So, how do Christians view the Ten Commandments? We rightly regard them as a summary of God’s moral law: his will for all people of all time. We do see Jesus (Luke 18:20) and the apostle Paul (Romans 13:9) restating some of the commandments in a different order from the Old Testament listing. Presenting the commandments in that way illustrates how we, as New Testament Christians, are free from the Mosaic Law wording of the Ten Commandments and yet look to the Ten Commandments as a summary of God’s will for our lives.

The language of Scripture is clear in pointing to the seventh day of the week (no matter what name we give it) as the Old Testament Sabbath Day. God set the pattern by working on the first six days and then resting on the seventh (Exodus 20:11).

There is something else to keep in mind as time went on: if God’s people were going to find spiritual rest through their corporate worship of the one true God, they would need a common “seventh day” for their assembly. Saturday, the seventh day, was that day.

The Sabbath Day pointed ahead to Jesus. He has “rest” for our souls through the forgiveness of sins (Matthew 11:28).

I'm having a hard time with this. I see so many verses in the Old Testament where God says not to practice human sacrifice of sons and daughters to other nations' gods. Why would God sacrifice His son? Thanks.

God’s Fifth Commandment forbids murder (Exodus 20:13; Deuteronomy 32:39; Psalm 31:15). God wants to protect human life because it is a time of grace; it is the only time people have to be brought to a confession of their sins and a confession of faith in Jesus Christ as their Savior (2 Corinthians 6:1-2; Hebrews 9:27).

Because of the importance of human life, the sacrificial system for God’s Old Testament people of Israel involved food or animals. You are correct in noting that God forbad human sacrifices. Scripture explains that people cannot save themselves or others. “No one can redeem the life of another or give to God a ransom for them—the ransom for a life is costly, no payment is ever enough—so that they should live on forever and not see decay” (Psalm 49:7-9). Human sacrifices are sinful and accomplish nothing when it comes to the forgiveness of sins.

Because forgiveness of sins is God’s work, he determined how he would display justice by punishing sin and also display love by forgiving sinners. The giving of his Son in life and in death is at the heart and center of God’s plan of salvation. God gave of himself to save people who could not save themselves, no matter what they did (1 John 4:9-10). That is love—amazing love.

Given that the Word and sacraments are the means of grace in the New Testament period, was there an equivalent for the Old Testament period? How do circumcision and the Passover relate to this? Also, if Paul in Galatians describes circumcision as a work of the law, and condemns adding it to faith, how does he also directly tie circumcision to baptism in Romans? If Paul consistently presents baptism as gospel, why does he tie it to the Old Testament work of circumcision? Or was circumcision a work at all, or was that the view the Jews had taken on at the time? And I've recently found the idea of God's presence confusing. In the Old Testament, God's presence could be found in the Most Holy Place, which was accessed once per year by the High Priest. Does this mean God wasn't present in His Word throughout the Old Testament, at least when it had been recorded and written for the people? And no doubt Old Testament believers are saved the same as we are, through faith alone. All their sins were pardoned by Christ. If this is true, how does the idea of God's presence shift from the Old Testament to the New Testament? And lastly, from my understanding, there's seems to be a distinction between God's more general presence (omnipresence) and His special presence in the means of grace. Is this a correct way of thinking about His presence? Thank you for all the help!

God the Holy Spirit has always used the Word of God to bring people to saving faith in Jesus Christ, the promised Messiah (Romans 10:17). For the male population of God’s Old Testament people of Israel, circumcision was a seal of the righteousness that was theirs by God-given faith in the promised Messiah (Romans 4:11).

As the rite of circumcision no longer applies to followers of God in New Testament times, the apostle Paul rightly condemned the requirement to be circumcised, along with believing in Jesus Christ as Savior, to enjoy salvation. The book of Galatians addresses this.

What that same apostle did in another inspired letter was to speak of a parallel between circumcision and Baptism: “ In him you were also circumcised with a circumcision not performed by human hands. Your whole self ruled by the flesh was put off when you were circumcised by Christ, having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through your faith in the working of God, who raised him from the dead” (Colossians 2:11-12).

The original Passover gave the Israelites deliverance from their enemies. The ongoing Passover observance pointed ahead to the perfect Lamb of God, Jesus, who would take away the sins of the world (John 1:29).

When it comes to the presence of God, the Bible teaches that God has many different modes of presence. He is omnipresent (Jeremiah 23:24; Psalm 139:7-10). He is present in the Lord’s Supper, as we receive the Lord’s body and blood, together with the bread and wine (1 Corinthians 10:16; 1 Corinthians 11:27). He is present with his church—when two or three come together in his name, as you referenced. He is present with each believer, as our body is a temple of the Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 6:19). He is present with each believer because he lives in them (John 17:20-23). Jesus was visibly present among people when he came to this world as true man (1 John 1:1-2).

Your numerous questions could certainly receive fuller treatment, but this is about the best I could do with limited response space.

Did it rain before the flood?

The Bible does not answer that question specifically. We have this information in Genesis 2:5-6 – “Now no shrub had yet appeared on the earth and no plant had yet sprung up, for the LORD God had not sent rain on the earth and there was no one to work the ground, but streams came up from the earth and watered the whole surface of the ground.” In Genesis 2:10-14 we read of a river from Eden that “separated into four headwaters.” The Bible first mentions rain in connection with Noah (Genesis 7:4, 12).

What is the New Testament reference to the commandment related to “keeping holy the Sabbath” (Sunday)?

For God’s Old Testament people of Israel, the Third Commandment involved a day of the week: Saturday. It was a day that emphasized physical and spiritual rest.

The Sabbath day pointed ahead to the perfect rest that the Messiah, Jesus Christ, would provide through the forgiveness of sins (Matthew 11:28-29). Like other parts of the ceremonial law, instructions regarding the Sabbath day are no longer in effect for God’s followers in New Testament times (Colossians 2:16-17). In Christian freedom, followers of the Lord chose Sunday as their primary day for corporate worship; they did so with Jesus’ resurrection in mind. Sunday is not the New Testament Sabbath. Christians are free to worship on any day of the week.

For New Testament followers of the Lord, then, the meaning of the Third Commandment is more about the Word of God than a day of the week. The explanation of the commandment in Luther’s Catechism reflects that: “We should fear and love God that we do not despise preaching and his Word, but regard it as holy and gladly hear and learn it.”

Gathering with fellow Christians for worship services is still important. “And let us consider how we may spur one another on toward love and good deeds, not giving up meeting together, as some are in the habit of doing, but encouraging one another—and all the more as you see the Day approaching” (Hebrews 10:24-25). “Let the message of Christ dwell among you richly as you teach and admonish one another with all wisdom through psalms, hymns, and songs from the Spirit, singing to God with gratitude in your hearts” (Colossians 3:16). Rather than mandating Saturday (or Sunday) as a day of corporate worship, God lets us decide which day of the week to come together for worship. And when there are opportunities for worship, the new self in us responds: “I rejoiced with those who said to me, ‘Let us go to the house of the Lord’” (Psalm 122:1).

As we are reading through Leviticus, why do you think God wanted us to learn about all of their laws at that time? I always have a hard time going through that part of the Bible.

I can imagine that you speak for many Christians, so thank you for your question.

My sainted uncle wrote a Bible study book on Leviticus titled Shadows of Christ. He wrote this in the Preface: “Why should we study the Book of Leviticus? To many, a study of this book will appear but remotely profitable. On the surface it may appear as valuable as walking through a veil into a room of archaic objects—just vestiges of a former age and a form of worship that has completed its usefulness. Leviticus, as properly and commonly understood, is the Law of ceremonies and rites for the Church in the Old Testament. Yet, if we examine the book carefully, we can see that Leviticus has the story of man’s salvation to tell in its own way.

“If we can appreciate that the ancient Egyptians expressed themselves admirably through hieroglyphics, then we will also appreciate the fact that the Lord in His own way can communicate and foretell the world’s redemption in picture form, or through Old Testament ceremonies. St. Paul, it is true, calls the ceremonies and the calendar of ancient Israel ‘shadows,’ but he never said: ‘Don’t investigate them.’ We are going to visit the old rooms of the Tabernacle (Temple) and brush away the dust. When we study these vestiges of a former age, we discover that the shadows lead to Christ. They present an amazingly precise account of salvation through faith in Christ the Crucified.”

The Foreword to Connecting Sinai to Calvary highlights the importance of Leviticus with these words: “In years past, Leviticus was the first Bible book read by children in a Jewish family. Unfortunately, Leviticus is the last book most Christians read. At what cost? They won’t be able to understand as well as they ought the comparisons between the Old Testament priest and Christ, our great High Priest…They are likely to miss all the New Testament connections to the ceremony the people of Israel witnessed each year on the great Day of Atonement. That day’s high point occurred when the high priest stepped out of the sanctuary, hands red from having been dipped into a container of animal blood—at least 28 times. In plain view of all the worshipers, he wiped those bloody hands on the head of a goat, which was then led out into the desert to die. Leviticus chapter 16 gives us this graphic portrayal of Christ as the sin bearer. To overlook such details surely detracts from one’s understanding of how God forgives sin.”

You and other Bible readers would also benefit by supplementing your reading of Leviticus with The People’s Bible commentary for Leviticus.

I hope these thoughts provide encouragement for reading Leviticus.

Who are God's elect?

The elect are those whom God graciously chose before the creation of the world to be his children forever (Ephesians 1:4-6; Romans 8:29-30). Through the gospel, God brings those whom he has elected to saving faith in Jesus Christ and preserves them in the faith. Election demonstrates that people are not in any way responsible for their salvation; God’s grace is the reason for their salvation (Romans 11:5-6).

One of our hymns addresses the subject this way: “From eternity, O God, In Your Son you did elect me. Therefore, Father, on life’s road Graciously to heav’n direct me; Send to me your Holy Spirit That his gifts I may inherit.” (Christian Worship 461:1) What blessings from our Triune God!

You recently had a family devotion about God's plan under daily devotions on Isaiah 49:5-6. It said this was a conversation between God the Father and Jesus the Son. How do we come to this conclusion when verse 3 says the servant is Israel?

As the promised Messiah, Jesus went by many different names and titles in the Old Testament. “Israel” in Isaiah 49:3 is one of those names. Calling the Messiah by that name underscores the means by which God sent the promised Savior into the world: Jesus, the eternal Son of God, came into the world and took on human flesh as a descendant of Jacob (Matthew 1:1-2; Luke 3:34).

Was Moses resurrected bodily? If Moses died and his soul went to heaven, how did he appear with a body on the mount of transfiguration with Elijah, whom we know didn't experience death? Is Moses in heaven soul and body? Help me understand this.

Moses died. That means his body and soul separated. The Bible tells us that God buried Moses’ body (Deuteronomy 34:6).

The Bible does not explain the way in which Moses appeared with Jesus at his transfiguration. What can be said is that the God who made it possible for angels, spirit beings, to appear in bodily form (Hebrews 13:2) enabled Moses to appear with Elijah and Jesus on the mount of transfiguration.

Hello. Could you please tell me more about the women prophets in the Bible? Thanks

In the context of Deborah, The People’s Bible for Judges states this: “A few, but not many, prophetesses are mentioned in Scripture, some by name. There is Miriam, the sister of Moses (Exodus 15:20). There is the unnamed wife of Isaiah (Isaiah 8:3). There is Huldah, who delivered God’s judgment to Judah in its last days (2 Kings 22:14; 2 Chronicles 34:22). There is Anna, who greeted the baby Jesus at his presentation (Luke 2:36). And then there are the four daughters of the deacon Philip (Acts 21:19) and a number of unnamed women who were members of congregations founded by the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 11). Besides these women, who served God faithfully in respect to prophecy, we have at least two false prophetesses, Noadiah, who opposed Nehemiah (Nehemiah 6:14), and Jezebel of Thyatira (Revelation 2:20).” (Pages 58-59)

This link will direct you to a paper that provides more information about Deborah.

A goodly amount of what is written in the Old and New testaments is wrong, or never happened, especially the Catholic versions. An example would be the dates of the Garden of Eden and the creation of modern man. 4,000 - 6,000 years ago is obviously incorrect, because we know that modern man has been around for at least 15,000 years, but likely a lot more. So if so much of the Bible, written by man, is false, how can one believe that it is "The Word of God"?

The Bible does not state how long ago the creation of Adam and Eve took place. People have used the chronologies in the Bible to try to approximate world history, but the chronologies are incomplete, and that presents challenges to any attempts to assign dates to events.

Because the Bible does not state “the dates of the Garden of Eden and the creation of modern man,” the charge that the Bible contains false and inaccurate information is unsubstantiated. Reasonable attempts to fill in the gaps of the biblical chronologies do place the creation of Adam and Eve below the time span you listed.  Again, the Bible itself does not present a timeline of historical events with dates.

God certainly used people to write the Bible. Verbal inspiration means that the Bible writers wrote exactly what God wanted written down (1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21). God himself is always truthful (Numbers 23:19), and what the Bible writers wrote is truth (John 17:17).

That last passage, John 17:17, explains that your complaint is really with Jesus. He stated that God’s word—not some of it, or most of it, but all of it—is truth. When the Holy Spirit convinces us of that, then we say what the psalm writer penned: “All your words are true” (Psalm 119:160). I pray that through the study of God’s word you come to that same confession.

A friend told me she remembers reading about how God sends hurricanes, tornadoes, floods, etc. because he wants us to go to church. I know sin is what causes troubles while we live on earth, but I don’t remember reading what she is telling me. If it is factual, can you guide me to the chapter in the Bible that tells us that?

More than wanting people to go to church, God’s desire is that people repent of their sins and trust in him as their Savior through the power of the Holy Spirit.

Jesus’ words in Matthew 24:7 tell us to expect “natural disasters” until God brings this world to an end on the Last Day. When we consider what Jesus said in Luke 13:1-9, the tragedies of this world serve a purpose of getting people’s attention and awakening the need for repentance.

What does it mean exactly that Eve is the mother of all the living? Does it mean that she’s the mother of all the believers in Christ who will live forever because they did not die in their sins but died in Christ, meaning they are all part of the living souls in Christ and Eve is the mother of them? Considering that Eve was the first to sin, I assume she turned from her sins and turned in faith at some point and was saved and ended up going to live forever in heaven.

As the first person to give birth to another human being and have countless offspring, “the mother of all the living” (Genesis 3:20) is certainly a description that fits Eve. But does that description go beyond physical ancestry and describe Eve’s connection with people regarding their spiritual lives? Many theologians and Bible commentators advance that thought.

Here is one example: “In faith the man fixed his attention on the one comforting detail in the entire announcement of the LORD. More was expressed by the man than the mere idea that God was indeed speaking the truth when he had indicated in the protevangelium [the first Gospel promise] that Eve would have offspring, and that for this reason she would become the mother of all the living. That in itself was a truth which was quite evident and one which would be readily believed. It would hardly be significant enough to be brought to our attention in such a solemn manner. Rather we see the conviction expressed here by Adam that since all living human beings would come forth from Eve, therefore also life in the fullest sense. Scripture often simply equates life with salvation.

“The significant way in which Adam’s naming is reported leads us to believe that he referred to the things implied in the promised victory over Satan, life in the midst of death. It is worth noting that this statement of Adam follows closely upon the announcement of physical death.”

Eve’s words in Genesis 4:1 and 4:25 are statements of faith in the God who promised a Savior. Such faith brings a person’s soul into the presence of God in heaven when earthly life comes to an end.

Mulling over the idea of Adam and Eve and how everyone else after their children came to be, were their grandchildren products of incest?

With the creation of only Adam and Eve, marriage between close relatives was a necessity in the beginning of time.

As world population increased, that necessity disappeared, and in time God prohibited sexual relations among family members (Leviticus 19).

Since spouses in those early marriages were unavoidably closely related, we would not call children from those early marriages “products of incest.”

Is there a reading guide to give someone who has never read the Bible before? What is a logical order to get them started?

A good resource for someone like that is “What About Jesus?” The website is maintained by WELS Commission on Evangelism.

This resource, “How can I begin to read the Bible?” presents a simple plan for beginning Bible readers.

The website offers many more practical helps for people who are interested in learning more about the Bible. Take a look and refer a friend!

I listen to VCY and other religious TV shows, YouTube videos, etc. I hear a lot of things like, you can't lose your salvation, the rapture, and other things that are opposite of WELS teaching and beliefs. How is that there can be so many scholars (either well known or late in their years studying the Bible for a whole lifetime ) that agree on most subjects, and yet a small group, like the WELS that teaches differently? Are we to believe that only the WELS/ELS has the correct answers to correct and proper biblical interpretation? Thank you and God bless.

WELS is not the only church body that rejects “the perseverance of the saints” (“once saved, always saved”) or the rapture. Other churches teach from Scripture that Christians can lose their faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Timothy 1:19). Other churches reject the rapture, understanding correctly that the events of 1 Thessalonians 4:13-17 occur on the Last Day.

We do not pretend to be the only church whose teachings and practices are biblical. We believe we are holding to the truths of God’s word. If others accuse us of error in doctrine or practice, we are willing and interested to listen, and see what Scripture says about their claims and our confession.

Are there other churches that accurately confess and teach the truths of God’s word? Yes. We praise God for that, and we are very interested in knowing who they are. In fact, our synod’s Commission on Inter-Church Relations is constitutionally charged with “representing the synod in doctrinal discussions with other church bodies who are, or are not, in fellowship with the synod in order to ‘extend and conserve the true doctrine and practice of the Evangelical Lutheran Church.’” Presently we are in fellowship with 31 church bodies throughout the world. You can find information on those churches via this website.

Is there any insight into what happens to a baby that is miscarried or stillborn? Are there specific references in the Bible that lead to your answer?

The Bible does not specifically address your question. The Bible teaches that people are conceived and born with a sinful nature (Psalm 51:5; John 3:6). The Bible teaches that faith in Jesus saves, while unbelief condemns (Mark 16:16). The Bible teaches that God works faith through his gospel (Romans 10:17). Since the Bible does not specifically address your question, our course of action is to entrust these children to a wise, just and loving God.

I'm curious to know why the definition for "sorcery" changes in Galations and the book of Revelation. In these two books it is a Greek word, pharmakeia. In the other books of the Bible, throughout the NT and OT, it's a Hebrew word meaning witchcraft. Why does this change? In the Book of Revelation it states how all the nations will be deceived by the sorcery (Greek) of men (18:23). Can you please offer some insight into this?

The Greek word pharmakeia has the idea of “the administering of drugs; poisoning.” The word then came to be associated with “sorcery, magic and the magic arts.” The word occurs only three times in the New Testament: Galatians 5:20; Revelation 9:21 and Revelation 18:23.

The New International Version (2011) translates the word as “witchcraft” in Galatians 5:20, “magic arts” in Revelation 9:21 and “magic spell” in Revelation 18:23. Using those different words illustrates the shadings in meaning that a word from another language can have and how translators seek to reflect those shadings. Using those different words also demonstrates that we are not to expect an exact word-for-word rendering when translating from one language to another.

While the specific words in the passages above vary slightly, the meaning is clear and consistent: the Bible condemns any practice that seeks power that is, in the end, associated with Satan.

I am a recovering alcoholic, so one verse that I remind myself of when I am feeling weak or unfulfilled is 2 Corinthians 12:9. I am curious if we have any idea what the thorn in Paul's side was.

The apostle Paul did not explain what the “thorn in his flesh” was. That has not stopped people from guessing. The guesses range from physical ailments to mental torments to an actual person who was disruptive to Paul’s ministry.

Even though we do not know what Paul’s problem was, we do have information related to it. There was a good purpose behind Paul’s thorn in the flesh. In light of his otherworldly experience (2 Corinthians 12:2-4), the thorn in his flesh was intended to keep Paul humble.

We also know that God heard Paul’s repeated prayers to remove his problem, but God’s loving and wise answer was a “no.” In his wisdom and love, God left the problem in Paul’s life but gave him the strength to carry out his ministry. God’s actions led Paul to understand better how a powerful God works through weak human beings (2 Corinthians 12:9).

God grant you continued strength to fight the good fight of faith (1 Timothy 6:12).

Why does God say that the earth was made for the devil and his angels and we have to live here with them? A second question, why does God say if we belong to him we can hear his voice? I worry every day because I cannot hear his voice.

I do not know which Scripture verse you might have in mind with your question, but the Bible does not speak of God making the earth for the devil and his angels. What the Bible does state is that God has prepared hell for the devil and his angels (Matthew 25:41).

Jesus did say, “I have other sheep that are not of this sheep pen. I must bring them also. They too will listen to my voice, and there shall be one flock and one shepherd…My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me” (John 10:16; 27). In the opening verses of John 10, Jesus used figurative language to describe how his followers listened and believed what he said: they listened and followed like sheep who knew the voice of their shepherd.

When Jesus spoke of his followers listening to his voice, he did not mean that our ears will receive actual sounds from him. By “listening to his voice,” Jesus has in mind the idea of believing what he says and doing what he says.

The time will come when Jesus’ followers will hear the actual voice of Jesus. On the Last Day he will say to them, “‘Come, you who are blessed by my Father; take your inheritance, the kingdom prepared for you since the creation of the world” (Matthew 25:34). What a joy it will be to hear that!

What does the Bible say about masturbation?

The Bible does not address the subject of masturbation directly. It does condemn the immoral thoughts and desires that one usually associates with masturbation. Following are thoughts from responses to similar questions.

“The WELS Catechism refers you to the following passages from God’s Word. I Thessalonians 4:3-5; Ephesians 5:3-5; Ephesians 5:12; and Matthew 5:27-29. As you read these passages you come across such phrases as ‘God’s Will,’ ‘avoid sexual immorality,’ ‘control his own body,’ ‘not in passionate lust,’ ‘No immoral . . . person . . . has any place in the kingdom of God,’ ‘There must not be even a hint of sexual immorality…obscenity, foolish talk, or coarse joking.’ ‘It is shameful even to mention what the disobedient do in secret,’ and ‘You have heard that is was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.’ It is obvious that God forbids all impure words and lustful thoughts.” On the contrary, Scripture says, “Whatever is pure, whatever is lovely, whatever is admirable…think about such things” (Philippians 4:8).

”Masturbation is self-stimulation to some form of arousal and climax. God gave sex as a gift and a blessing to human beings for marriage with a life-long partner of the opposite sex. Self-stimulation is a corruption of God’s gift and blessing of sex.

“God’s Word also says that we should do all things to the glory of God (I Corinthians 10:31). ‘Solo Sex’ (auto eroticism) by definition seems to run in conflict with God’s design at creation in making humans male and female (Genesis 2:20-25). One also wonders how one honors God with her or his body through masturbation (I Corinthians 6:12-20).”

The Bible’s instruction is to live “holy and godly lives” (2 Peter 3:11).

I am asking this on behalf of a friend. I learned about this in a recent Bible study where we looked at these questions. Is there free will in heaven? Did Satan have a taste of heaven before he revolted? How long was the time between when creation and when Adam and Eve were tempted and sinned for the first time?

In heaven, God’s people will have perfect freedom of will. They will thrill to do whatever pleases God. As sin and its effects will be removed completely (Revelation 21:4), there will be no evil for God’s people to choose.

Satan and other evil angels once enjoyed a perfect existence in the presence of God, but their rebellion against God led to their expulsion from heaven and sentencing to hell (2 Peter 2:4; Jude 6).

Scripture does not give us a timetable for the fall of the angels or the fall of Adam and Eve. We know from Genesis 1 and 2 that God’s creation was initially perfect. Genesis 3 then presents us with Satan (Revelation 20:2) tempting Eve, so the fall of Satan and other angels took place in the time period after Genesis 1 and 2 and before Genesis 3.

What we do know with certainty is that Jesus Christ came into the world to defeat Satan (1 John 3:8). Jesus crushed Satan’s power (Genesis 3:15) by his holy life, sacrificial death and glorious resurrection. God now promises that with his strength we can defend ourselves from Satan’s attacks (Ephesians 6:10-17; James 4:7).

I learned in Catechism class and I’ve seen in a lot of WELS literature I’ve read that true biblical doctrine is saying that we lost the image of God at the fall into sin. This is contrary to most other Christian denominations, who say we still bear the image of God (but they define the image of God differently as well, to include our logic and reason, our consciences, and the intrinsic value of our lives and our rights as citizens). We don’t define it that way and we say the image of God, the righteousness and holiness and the perfect relationship with God, was lost at the fall. Why then, in Genesis 9:6, when God is commanding Noah’s rules for the post-Flood world, does he give his reason for murder being wrong as, “Whoever sheds human blood, by humans shall their blood be shed; for in the image of God has God made mankind”? That means we still do have the image of God, doesn’t it? Or at least, that having the image of God is a valid reason to disprove of abortion? Then what is the image of God if all humans have it? Or is there something in the Hebrew that would suggest otherwise? Thanks so much for your time and concern!

Being created in the image of God meant that Adam and Eve were holy, they had perfect knowledge of God’s will, and their wills were entirely aligned with God’s will. After the fall into sin, the Bible tells us that Adam had a child in his likeness and image, not God’s (Genesis 5:1-3). Since the fall into sin, human beings born of sinful people have entered this world as sinners (Psalm 51:5), enemies of God (Romans 8:7) and people whose natural will is opposed to God’s will (Romans 7:7-23). Despite this natural sinful condition, people still have a natural knowledge of God from creation and their conscience, and they naturally know the basics of God’s law (Psalm 19:1-4; Hebrews 3:4; Romans 2:14-15).

While there are some Lutheran theologians who speak of people still being made, in a limited sense, in the image of God insofar as they have intellect and will, it is more consistent with Scripture to say that the image of God was lost through the fall into sin and is restored in Christians.

Genesis 9:6 and James 3:9 are passages that some theologians cite to indicate that after the fall into sin people are born in the image of God in a limited sense. When we understand the image of God especially denoting holiness and loving only that which God loves, then we see those particular passages speaking of the original condition of people, which is no longer the case because of sin.

Each person receives life from God (Acts 17:25), and only God or his representatives in government have the right to end a person’s life (Deuteronomy 32:39; Romans 13:4). God’s fifth commandment forbids murder, and that includes abortion.

Finally, the image of God is being restored in Christians (2 Corinthians 3:18; Ephesians 4:24; Colossians 3:10), and it will be fully restored when Christians leave this world of sin (Psalm 17:15; 1 Corinthians 13:9-12; 1 John 3:2).

What happens to all the people who have lived in this world that never heard of Jesus? Are there any Scripture passages that shed light on this often asked question?

You are correct in that, over the years, countless people have asked questions like yours. Here is a response given to a previous question.

God reveals his existence by means of what we call the “natural knowledge of God.” Through creation (Psalm 19:1-4) and conscience (Romans 2:14-15), God makes it known that he exists. While people cannot bring themselves to saving faith, God’s purpose with this “natural knowledge” is that people would “seek him and perhaps reach out for him and find him, though he is not far from any one of us” (Acts 17:27).

Apart from the Bible, people know that there is a God, they know the basics of the Ten Commandments and they have a conscience that reacts to their thoughts and words and actions. It is only in the Bible though where people find the answer to the question: “What must I do to be saved?” (Acts 16:30) There is salvation only in Jesus Christ (Acts 4:12). What God reveals in the Bible is that faith in Jesus is essential for salvation (Mark 16:16). God also reveals that he brings people to saving faith in Jesus through his gospel in word and sacrament (Romans 10:14-17).

So, what about people who have not heard of Jesus? Through technological advances, the message of the Bible is reaching more and more parts of our world. Yet, there are people who have never heard of the gospel of Jesus Christ; some of those people may live closer to us than we think. What about their eternal fate if their lives on earth come to an end with an ignorance of the gospel?

Is God to blame for their situation? Not at all. We need to put the blame where it belongs: on people and not on God. There were times when the entire human race knew the gospel. Back in the Garden of Eden and after the Flood in Noah’s day, every person on the face of the earth knew the gospel. When we consider a question like yours, we have to ask: “When and where did communication break down? Where did communication of the gospel break down? Who dropped the ball in teaching the gospel to the next generation?” It does not take much for communication—and gospel communication—to break down, and the results are tragic.

So what we are left with is what God says in his word about the necessity of faith and the necessity to spread the gospel so the Holy Spirit can work through it and bring others to saving faith in Jesus. Your question is one that emphasizes how important it is to do what Jesus said two millennia ago: “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation” (Mark 16:15).

I am in need of something written by the WELS that explains the specific reasons the New Living Version translation is not acceptable. I don't question our stance but need help addressing it accurately and precisely with friends who like the NLV and want to see it become the official Bible of our church. I truly appreciate any specific help you can provide.

This link will take you to a document titled “Evaluating Bible Translations.” The New Living Translation is one of the translations evaluated.

Do keep in mind that there is not an “official Bible of our church.” The recent discussions in our church body regarding Bible translations have addressed which translations to use in our publications. While walking together as a synod, congregations enjoy Christian freedom in the use of Bible translations.

Hello: I am currently a few weeks from completing my Master's degree in counseling. Today in class we had an interesting discussion I would like to hear the Christian view on. The discussion was on the presentation of mental disorders and if certain things could be classified as a symptom. In one case, the patient reported having a premonition a loved one would die the day before they did. While it could be considered a symptom of this patient's disorder, it started a discussion if premonitions could actually be a symptom since most people at one time or another have experienced them. The experiences discussed ranged from meeting a significant other and knowing they'd marry that person, feelings to take a different route only to learn later of an accident that occurred around the time they would have been there, feeling like a loved one was going to die before they did, thinking of someone only to hear from them, etc. The discussion proceeded to speculation where they come from - God, deceased loved ones, angels, Spirit guides, etc. I don't recall Scripture talking about premonitions. What is the Christian view on premonitions and where they might come from?

In the Bible, God certainly did speak directly to individuals about future events (Exodus 7:1-5) or through others (2 Kings 20:1; Acts 21:10-11).

While God can do anything, we do not have any promise from him—or expect him—to speak to us outside the Bible (Hebrews 1:1-2).

For a good treatment on the topic of information and the future, I would refer you to the first chapter of the book “Wizards that Peep.” It is available from Northwestern Publishing House.

In Acts10, Cornelius’ prayers were acknowledged by God. However, he was not yet saved. Can you explain this? Thanks.

To understand the situation, we need to keep in mind how early in the history of the Christian Church the event in Acts 10 took place. Cornelius was a Gentile whose beliefs were Jewish. Through his faith in the Savior whom God promised, he was a child of God. That is why God heard and answered his prayers.

Like other Jewish believers before him, Cornelius was looking for the promised Savior. Peter told Cornelius that the waiting was over because God had fulfilled his promises of a Savior in Jesus of Nazareth. Now the focus of Cornelius’ faith shifted from the Savior who was promised to the Savior who had come. With that in mind, Cornelius and his family were baptized.

Jesus tells James and John that granting places at his left and right is not for him to grant. Does he mean it is not his to grant in his humanity or it is not the Son's to grant but the Father's decision? If the latter is true, then what about the authority as judge that Jesus holds?

Jesus’ words tell us that the Father, who planned the world’s salvation and sent his Son into the world to fulfill that mission (John 3:16), also determined places of honor in his heavenly kingdom.

Jesus also explained that his heavenly Father has entrusted him with the judgement of all people on the Last Day (John 5:22, 27; Acts 10:42; 17:31). That is appropriate since it is people’s attitude toward Jesus and his gospel that determines where people will spend eternity.

1 Cor 3:2 "I have fed you with milk, and not with meat: for hitherto ye were not able to bear it, neither yet now are ye able." What is the meat and where can I get it? I still feel like all I am fed is milk.

The apostle Paul used the imagery of milk and solid food to describe how he ministered to spiritually immature Christians in Corinth. That imagery is what the writer to the Hebrews also employed (Hebrews 5:13-14).

The “meat” of the Christian faith refers to the deeper doctrines of the Bible and the scriptural truths that are challenging to our human minds.

I would say that a good place to get that “meat” is at congregational Bible studies. Bible classes offer a question and answer and discussion format that can help guide Christians through a study of Scripture—including those parts that are easy and those that are more difficult to understand.

Can you tell me who wrote the books of the New Testament? I looked on Google but want to cross reference with what WELS says. Thanks.

The column on the left is a listing of the New Testament books, while the information in the right column pertains to authorship.

Matthew                    Matthew
Mark                            Mark
Luke                             Luke
John                             John
Acts                              Luke
Romans                     Paul
1 Corinthians          Paul
2 Corinthians         Paul
Galatians                   Paul
Ephesians                  Paul
Philippians                Paul
Colossians                 Paul
1 Thessalonians      Paul
2 Thessalonians     Paul
1 Timothy                  Paul
2 Timothy                  Paul
Titus                            Paul
Philemon                   Paul
Hebrews                    Unknown
James                         James
1 Peter                        Peter
2 Peter                       Peter
1 John                        John
2 John                       John
3 John                       John
Jude                           Jude
Revelation              John

In Numbers 27:21 the Lord commands Moses to command Joshua, Israel's new leader, to inquire of the Urim. I looked in the People's Bible but there was no explanation there. I googled it but felt a bit unsure about trusting what I would find there, so I turned to WELS.net I would appreciate having more information about it. Thank you.

I am afraid I will not be able to shed much light on the subject. Exodus 28:30 includes God’s instruction to Moses of fastening the Urim and Thummin to the breastpiece of the high priest so that the high priest, Aaron, “will always bear the means of making decisions for the Israelites over his heart before the LORD.”

What we do not know is how the Urim “worked” in enabling the high priest to receive information from God. Because “Urim” is similar to the Hebrew word for “lights,” some people have thought that they were lights or reflections in the stones of the high priest’s breastpiece. The reality is that the Urim remain shrouded in mystery to us today.

Where is the verse that says Satan knows his end?

Perhaps you are thinking of Revelation 12:12 – “Therefore rejoice, you heavens and you who dwell in them! But woe to the earth and the sea, because the devil has gone down to you! He is filled with fury, because he knows that his time is short.”

Satan does not know when the Last Day will be (Matthew 24:36). He simply knows that there is an end to his activity on earth, and the end is approaching.

Mary and Joseph did everything in their power to hide the fact that Mary was pregnant through a virgin birth. How in the world did the gospel writers find out?

The Bible does not tell us everything about Joseph and Mary’s actions regarding her miraculous pregnancy. We do know that Joseph was interested in sparing Mary from “public disgrace” (Matthew 1:19).

In the beginning of his gospel, the evangelist Luke states: “Many have undertaken to draw up an account of the things that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed down to us by those who from the first were eyewitnesses and servants of the word. With this in mind, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, I too decided to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the certainty of the things you have been taught” (Luke 1:1-4). Did that investigation include speaking to Mary? We do not know.

We do know that Jesus, on the cross, instructed John to take care of Mary (John 19:25-27). Did John at some point relay information from Mary to Luke? We do not know that either.

At any rate, we want to keep in mind that the doctrine of verbal inspiration means that the Bible writers wrote down exactly—to the very word (1 Corinthians 2:13)—what God wanted them to write down. They might have received their information directly from God that even covered events well before their lifetimes. (Think of Moses writing about creation.) The Holy Spirit is responsible for the Bible’s contents. (2 Peter 1:20-21)

According to the Bible, why did the Jewish people lose the Promised Land? Was it because they disobeyed God or was it because of some other reason? The modern state of Israel is a reality based on a number of events that have taken place in world history. However, beyond that, can modern Jews substantiate a right to the land based on the Bible?

God made it clear to the people of Israel that he was the owner of the Promised Land and they were “foreigners and strangers” in it (Leviticus 25:23). Moses warned the people that their disobedience of the Lord’s commands would lead to their forfeiture of the land (Deuteronomy 28:63-64). Sadly, Old Testament history relates the people’s disobedience and the subsequent troubles they experienced.

The Bible does not address the modern nation of Israel. Through faith in Jesus, God wants all people—Jews and Gentiles alike—to enjoy the blessings of the heavenly Jerusalem (Hebrews 12:22).

God gave Eve a brain. Did she not know animals (snakes) cannot talk?

The biblical record is simply that “the serpent was more crafty than any of the wild animals the LORD God had made” (Genesis 3:1), and Eve “was deceived” (1 Timothy 2:14).

Adam was also a rational human being, but he followed Eve’s sinful lead (Genesis 3:6).

Thankfully for them and for us, God promised a Savior to crush the serpent’s head (Genesis 3:15). Jesus is that Savior. Satan’s final and complete defeat lies in the future (Revelation 20:2, 10).

Why does the WELS believe Scripture should be taken literally?

The goal of biblical interpretation is to understand the words in the way the author intended. Allow me to distinguish among and explain several terms of biblical interpretation. When we accept at face value the ordinary meanings of words, we are following a literal interpretation. When figures of speech or genre make it clear that the author is using figurative or symbolic language, we interpret figuratively. If we disregard figures of speech and genre and interpret literally, we are interpreting literalistically—and that is wrong.

We confess this in This We Believe: “We believe and accept the Bible on its own terms, accepting as factual history what it presents as history and recognizing as figurative speech what is evident as such. We believe that Scripture must interpret Scripture, clear passages throwing light on those less easily understood. We believe that no authority–whether it is human reason, science, or scholarship–may stand in judgment over Scripture. Sound scholarship will faithfully search out the true meaning of Scripture without presuming to pass judgment on it.”

Northwestern Publishing House offers good, reliable books on the subject of biblical interpretation. I commend them to you for your reading.

My WELS grandchildren believe that a distant deceased adolescent Catholic cousin is an angel and he is now watching over them. The deceased mother is the advocator of this angel theory. They admire the deceased cousin and his mother. I understand the Bible teaches there are a fixed number of angels, nevertheless I am struggling to clearly clarify this issue for them.

The Bible teaches that there are great differences between angels and people. While we know that God created Adam and Eve on the sixth day (Genesis 1:26-31; 2:4-25), the Bible does not specifically mention on what day God created the angels.

Angels are spirit beings (Hebrews 1:14) with no physical bodies. Human beings have bodies and souls. When death takes place, body and soul separate (Ecclesiastes 12:7). The souls of Christians are then in heaven, while their bodies remain on earth (Luke 23:43; Revelation 6:9-11). On the Last Day, the Lord will raise their bodies and reunite bodies and souls (Job 19:25-27; John 5:28-29).

Confusion about angels and people often arises by a misunderstanding of passages like these: “At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven” (Matthew 22:30) and “The people of this age marry and are given in marriage. But those who are considered worthy of taking part in the age to come and in the resurrection from the dead will neither marry nor be given in marriage, and they can no longer die; for they are like the angels. They are God’s children, since they are children of the resurrection” (Luke 20:34-36).

Jesus spoke the words of the passages above in response to a question about marriage, death and eternity. Jesus explained that marriage is an earthly blessing only. When Christians die, they become “like the angels” in that they live apart from God’s institution of marriage and they “can no longer die.” The word “like” is all-important in the passages above. Jesus did not say his followers become angels upon death; Christians who die are “like” angels for the reasons given.

One last thought. There is a significant difference between angels and human beings when it comes to salvation. Angels are certainly interested in people’s salvation (Luke 15:10; 1 Peter 1:12), but it is people who are the objects of God’s redeeming love (Hebrews 2).

Hopefully, you can share information like this with your grandchildren to clarify the difference between angels and people. God bless you all.

With the past week or more, we have been hit with many racial accusations of hated and purposeful actions. As I look back through the Bible, I see justifications on both sides for the particular reaction. I read about the Samaritans and the Jews. Please provide other tribal disparities in the Bible that I can reference. Thank you.

There was bad blood between Samaritans and Jews going back to the 8th century B.C. That was when the Assyrians moved people into the areas of northern Israel vacated by Israelites who were taken into captivity in Assyria. Those transplants became known as Samaritans.

I do not know if this is the information you are seeking, but here are some biblical references that show how the people of Israel were to distance themselves from surrounding, heathen nations: Deuteronomy 23:3-6; Ezra 10:10-44; Nehemiah 13:1-3. The reason for that distancing was religious in nature: God did not want the people of Israel to pollute themselves with ideas of false religions.

At the same time, because God loves all people (John 3:16), he wanted the people of Israel to declares his praises to others so that they too could enjoy his forgiving love through faith in the promised Messiah (Psalm 96:2-3; Isaiah 43:10, 12, 21; Jonah 4:1-11).

That outreach—along with Christian mission and evangelism activity of all time—achieved its goal, as evidenced by what the apostle John saw in one of his visions: “After this I looked, and there before me was a great multitude that no one could count, from every nation, tribe, people and language, standing before the throne and before the Lamb” (Revelation 7:9).

How come WELS pastors don't teach about the book of Revelation? I keep hearing we are currently living during "end times" and that it is near, but they don't expand on the teaching of the book. If I'm living it, I want to learn more about it and it is too complex to understand on my own.

The book of Revelation is a subject of WELS teaching and preaching. It is not a book of the Bible that we ignore. If your church has not offered a Bible study on the book of Revelation in some time, do talk to your pastor about that.

If you would like to read what some WELS pastors have written about Revelation, this link will provide you with plenty of good reading material.

In addition, this link will show you what materials on Revelation are available from Northwestern Publishing House.

The word curse is in the Bible a number of times. What is the correct teaching of the word curse in the Bible?

Cursing is using God’s name to wish evil on someone or something (Numbers 22:6-12; 2 Samuel 16:5-14). Cursing is a violation of God’s Second Commandment.

The Bible teaches us to use God’s name to bless others and not curse (Romans 12:14; James 3:10).

This is really bothering me. Why do we consider the papacy of the Roman Catholic Church the Antichrist when they chose the books for the New Testament we use? Seems like everything about the Bible is pick and choose by man. Thanks.

This link will take you to a “Statement on the Antichrist” located elsewhere on this website.

The Statement explains that the Lutheran Confessions have identified the papacy as the Antichrist for reasons of “usurping authority in the Church and tyrannizing Christian consciences,” and opposing God by “usurping the place and name of God” (2 Thessalonians 2:4).

The papacy did not choose the books for the New Testament we use. The apostles were involved in the collection and preservation of the books of the New Testament (2 Peter 3:15-16; 1 Thessalonians 5:19-22, 2 Thessalonians 2:2, Revelation 2:2). God established what we call the “canon.” In time, God’s followers recognized the canon.

What does it mean that Jesus is the Word of God?

“He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God” (Revelation 19:13). That is a description of Jesus.

The name that Jesus has in that verse from Revelation 19 is rare. In other inspired writings, the apostle John called Jesus “the Word” (John 1; 1 John 1). Revelation 19:13 lengthens “the Word” to “the Word of God.”

While John does not explain that name, other parts of Scripture can shed light on it. Revelation 19:15 describes Jesus with a “sharp sword” in his mouth. Revelation 1:16 pictures Jesus with a “sharp, double-edged sword” coming out of his mouth.

Those images bring to mind the writer to the Hebrew’s declaration that the word of God is “sharper than any double-edged sword” (Hebrews 4:12). That same writer began his epistle with these words: “ In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe” (Hebrews 1:1-2). Finally, Jesus said this, “These words you hear are not my own; they belong to the Father who sent me” (John 14:24).

All this says that “Word of God” is a very fitting and appropriate name for Jesus because he came to this world as a human being to proclaim the word of God to people, and that word of God centers in him, the promised Savior.

Was Jesus naked on the cross because the Roman soldiers cast lots for the undergarment as described in John 19:23-24? Also, it is unusual that there is a distinction between clothes and undergarment. However I do not know how to translate the original Greek that may have some insight on this section.

Your first question is one that remains unanswered. History tells us that it was common practice for crucifixion victims to be naked. That was part of the shame and humiliation of the public execution. The Bible does not specifically mention the nakedness of the crucifixion victims on Calvary, but if that is what Jesus endured, it is another example of how he “humbled himself by becoming obedient to death—even death on a cross! (Philippians 2:8)

The Bible does tell us that the four soldiers assigned to oversee Jesus’ crucifixion divided his clothing into four equal parts and cast lots for his “undergarment” (some Bible translations: “tunic”). The original Greek simply has different terms for clothing in that verse.

Those seemingly insignificant details about Jesus’ clothing point to fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy: “They divided my clothes among them and cast lots for my garment” (Psalm 22:18). Jesus is the Christ, the anointed one, the Messiah.

Why do Lutherans believe in Scripture alone when nowhere in the Bible it says that you should do that? Why not also believe in tradition like Catholics do?

We believe that Scripture alone is the source of our faith because that is what Scripture teaches. In the Bible God makes it clear that we are not to add to or subtract from his word (Deuteronomy 4:2; Revelation 22:18-19). The apostle Paul states clearly that God’s word is the foundation of the Christian Church and Jesus Christ is the chief cornerstone (Ephesians 2:20). There are no other foundations, like tradition, for our faith. Jesus tells us to search the Scriptures (John 5:39) and not to look anywhere else for saving truth (Luke 16:29). Jesus rebuked people who added to the word of God (Matthew 15:7-9).

Finally, Scripture alone is inspired and inerrant (1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21). Unlike the words and writings of people, God’s word can always be trusted because he always speaks the truth (Numbers 23:19).

How do Lutherans view the Virgin Mary compared to Catholics? Do they still honor her and love her?

We view Mary as the woman God graciously chose to give birth to Jesus Christ. Mary received that honor and privilege only because of God’s grace to her (Luke 1:26-38).

Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary entered this world as a baby without a sinful nature. The Bible does not teach that. The Bible teaches that all people born from a human father and a human mother are conceived and born in sin (John 3:6). Like all such people, Mary was in need of a Savior to forgive her sins. She recognized her sinfulness and need for a Savior (Luke 1:47). Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary did not commit actual sins. The Bible teaches that all people born from a human father and a human mother are guilty of sin (Psalm 14:2-3; Romans 3:23).

Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary remained a virgin after she gave birth to Jesus by not having sexual relations with Joseph. The Bible does not teach that. Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary’s body and soul went to heaven at the end of her earthly life. The Bible does not teach that. Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary is in a position to receive and answer prayers that are directed to her. The Bible teaches that any acts of worship, including prayer, are to be directed to God alone (Matthew 4:10; Revelation 22:9). Roman Catholic Church teaching speaks of a “saving office” of Mary. The Bible does not teach that. There is only one Savior and mediator between God and people: Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 2:5-6).

When we hold to what the Bible teaches, we will understand that Mary was a person who received a great blessing from God in being the woman to give birth to the promised Savior. From the Bible, we will see that the Savior, Jesus Christ, came to save people from their sins, including Mary.

Why would Christians start a tradition like the imposition of ashes with a mark on the forehead or hand when Revelation speaks of this as a sign of the beast? (It also forced all people, great and small, rich and poor, free and slave, to receive a mark on their right hands or on their foreheads.)

The marking of people who belong to Satan (Revelation 20:4) is not a literal marking, as if they will have a visible mark on their forehead. The marking is symbolic—just as Christians are described as having a seal on their foreheads (Revelation 7:3).

Sealing or marking denotes ownership. “The Lord knows those who are his” (2 Timothy 2:19). People who belong to God through faith in Jesus Christ are symbolically marked as belonging to God; it is as if they have a mark that says “Property of God.” And if people are not in the family of God through faith in Jesus Christ, they belong to someone else (Matthew 12:30). It is as if there is a symbolic, figurative marking to denote that ownership.

The imposition of ashes on Ash Wednesday is a matter of Christian freedom. Christians are free to utilize the practice or not take part in it. This brief article will explain the meaning of that practice.

Did Jesus start his ministry before going to the wilderness to fast?

In the context of Jesus’ Baptism, the Bible states: “Now Jesus himself was about thirty years old when he began his ministry” (Luke 3:23). The 40 days of temptation by Satan followed Jesus’ Baptism (Luke 4:1-2).

While Jesus’ public ministry began with his Baptism, we do not want to minimize the first three decades of his life. Prior to his Baptism, Jesus had been leading a quiet, holy life because he was “born under law, to redeem those under law” (Galatians 4:4-5). Jesus acted as our substitute in life, keeping the law of God perfectly in our place. That holy life, along with his sacrifice on the cross as our substitute, won our forgiveness of sins.

In Matthew 16:18 Jesus says that He will build His Church on “this rock.” Catholics believe this rock to be Peter, while Lutherans seem to believe that “this rock” is referring to Peter’s confession of faith since it is a play on words in the Greek (Petros to Petra). My question is, if this is the case, then why would Jesus even change Peter’s name in the first place? Why wouldn’t he just stay Simon, instead of changing his name to Peter (rock)? What would be the point?

Jesus’ words in Matthew 16:18 (“…you are Peter…”) are a statement of fact. The place in Scripture where we find Jesus speaking of giving an additional name to Simon is John 1:42 – “Jesus looked at him and said, ‘You are Simon son of John. You will be called Cephas’ (which, when translated, is Peter).”

In Matthew 16:13-20, when God led Simon Peter to make a beautiful confession of faith in Jesus Christ, the Lord acknowledged that the disciple who answered a question addressed to all the disciples had indeed lived up to his new name, which means “rock.” In spite of denying his Lord, Peter would continue to confess Jesus as his Savior—most notably in his sermon on Pentecost (Acts 2:14-41).

As you noted, the Greek word for Peter is “petros.” It is a masculine noun. The Greek word for the rock on which Jesus was going to build his church is “petra.” It is a feminine noun. By saying he was going to build his church “on this rock” (petra, feminine), the Lord made it clear that he was building his church on the confession that he is Savior—and not on the person who made such a confession.

Thank you for your Q&A site. It is a valuable resource for understanding the truth of God’s word. A recent posting (“Election and salvation”) indicated that God’s desire that all be saved (1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9) and God’s election to salvation (Ephesians 1:3-14) when taken together constitute a mystery that human minds cannot comprehend. But a general desire by God for the salvation of all need not be in conflict with God’s specific actions on election, even to a human mind. For example, they might be reconciled as follows: 1. God wants all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:4) by living perfect and holy lives (Matthew 5:48), but unfortunately none do (Romans 3:23). 2. So God sent His Son Jesus into the world to so that people could be saved by believing in Him (John 3:16; Romans 3:24). 3. God wants all people to be saved (1 Timothy 2:4) by believing in Jesus of their own free will (Matthew 23:37a), but unfortunately none do (Matthew 23:37b; 1 Corinthians 2:14). 4. So God sends His Spirit into the world to build faith in the hearts of those he elects (1 Corinthians 12:3; Ephesians 1:3-14) in order to build His church on earth. Do you see a problem with this interpretation? Thanks again.

Thank you for your kind words. I have no problem with people having a better grasp of the Bible’s mysteries than I do. We can always grow in our knowledge of the Bible and our Christian faith (2 Peter 3:18).

You certainly are correct in noting that people fail to live holy lives that God demands, that God provides forgiveness of sins through Jesus’ redeeming work and that the Holy Spirit is responsible for bringing people to saving faith. (With regard to your third statement, people do not have free will to believe in Jesus. All people can do by nature is reject Jesus as their Savior.)

What I wonder about is the intended meaning of your fourth statement. The wording (“So…”) can lead to the understanding that God’s election was in response to people’s actions of some kind. Election took place in eternity, before God ever said, “Let there be…” Election took place before sin entered the world and before Jesus carried out his redeeming work. Your fourth statement seems to put election “in time” rather than in eternity.

The previous question that you referenced laid out the two biblical statements, “God wants all to be saved” and “God has elected some,” to show how the Bible’s doctrine of salvation and doctrine of election present challenges to our understanding.

What is clear to minds that have been enlightened by the Holy Spirit is that God’s word remains true even if we cannot fully grasp its meaning. Christian faith does not mean that I understand perfectly what God has said in his word; it means that, through the power of the Holy Spirit, I believe what God says in his word (Hebrews 11:1). May that faith always be ours!

I've asked this several times, but I'll try again. In Luther's morning and evening prayer it ends with "let your holy angel be with me......." Question: who is the "holy angel"? Thank you.

Your question was answered on April 12, 2017. Answers to questions are emailed to the questioners via the email address provided. (You want to check all your email folders for the response.) Answers to questions are also posted on the web site.

Here is the answer that was emailed and posted this past April:

“The holy angels are those angels who did not join in with Satan and other angels in rebelling against God (2 Peter 2:4). The holy angels are ‘ministering spirits sent to serve those who will inherit salvation’ (Hebrews 1:14). The holy angels carry out God’s command ‘to guard you in all your ways’ (Psalm 91:11). The ‘holy angel’ in Martin Luther’s prayers references any of the heavenly host whom God might choose to use to carry out his good and gracious will in our lives. Might God use a single angel on occasion? Yes. Might he use more than one angel on occasion? Yes.

“The Bible does not state specifically that God has assigned a guardian angel to each Christian. While it would be comforting to know that God has matched one angel to us for life-time service and protection, it is even more comforting to know that God employs angels—plural—in his providential care of each Christian.

“God’s gracious use of angels in our lives provides another reason for praising God. ‘Lord God, to you we all give praise; To you our joyful hymns we raise That angel hosts you did create Around your glorious throne to wait. But watchful is the angel band That follows Christ on ev’ry hand To guard his people where they go And break the counsel of the foe. O Lord, awaken songs of praise For angel hosts that guard our days; Teach us to serve you and adore As angels do forevermore.’” (Christian Worship 196:1, 5-6)

How old is the earth?

Very recently another person asked a similar question. Here is the answer that was given:

“No precise number is available. Biblical chronologies—and they are incomplete—suggest that God created the world within the past 6,000 to 10,000 years. Of course, God created a fully mature world, so objects had age at the very beginning of time.”

When Christ entered Sheol for three days before ascending into heaven to sit at the right hand of God, what was the purpose?

Permit me to correct the timeline of events in your question. On “the third day” (according to the Jewish reckoning of time), the Lord rose from the dead. When Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in the tomb, the Lord descended into hell. He did that to proclaim his victory over Satan and hell and death (1 Peter 3:18-20). Afterwards, also on Easter Sunday, Jesus appeared to his followers. Jesus then appeared to his followers over a period of 40 days (Acts 1:3). After that, the Lord ascended into heaven, withdrawing his visible presence from people.

In Ephesians 5:5, what does the word "inheritance" refer to? Does this mean that believers who go to heaven will not receive "treasure in heaven" (Matthew 6:19-21; 1 Timothy 6:17-19)? Or does this mean that any person (even a believer) who is "immoral, impure or greedy" will not get into heaven at all?

“Inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God” in Ephesians 5:5 refers to eternal life with God in heaven. The warning in that verse is that impenitent sinners are barred from God’s kingdom. 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 offers a similar warning.

Warnings like those in Scripture explain why God earnestly desires that the message of repentance and forgiveness of sins through Jesus be spread to all people (Luke 24:46-47; Acts 3:19-20).

The way King Saul's life ended, do you think he was saved? After all, he was God's anointed even though he turned against God's will.

King Saul certainly was “the Lord’s anointed…the anointed of the Lord” (1 Samuel 24:6), as David recognized. Unfortunately, Saul failed to live up to that designation. The account of Saul’s death paints a dismal picture of his fate: “Saul died because he was unfaithful to the LORD; he did not keep the word of the LORD and even consulted a medium for guidance, and did not inquire of the LORD. So the LORD put him to death and turned the kingdom over to David son of Jesse” (1 Chronicles 10:13-14).

When people die without saving faith in their hearts, they face an eternity in hell. The account of Saul’s death has the language of someone who died in unbelief.

Lunar and solar eclipses - do they have anything to do with the Christian faith, as some Southern Baptists are telling people?

Lunar and solar eclipses relate to the Christian faith in as much as God is in control of the heavenly bodies he created (Job 38:31-33; Psalm 104:19-20; Isaiah 45:12; Jeremiah 31:35). The darkening of the sun of which the Bible speaks (Matthew 24:29) is an event that will take place on Judgment Day.

If people are interested in identifying current events as signs that point to the last day, then they can speak about tensions among nations (“wars and rumors of wars”) and “famines and earthquakes” (Matthew 24:6-8). Each occurrence of those events tells us that the last day is right on schedule—God’s schedule. Possessing Christian faith and confidence, God’s people look ahead to that day and say, “Amen. Come, Lord Jesus” (Revelation 22:20).

Does the Lutheran Church have a position on "private revelations?" I am thinking of Lourdes, Fatima, etc., in Roman Catholicism. As I understand from researching various websites, even when the Roman Catholic Church "approves" an occurrence, it only means it (the revelation or event) contains nothing contrary to the faith. But no one is required to believe the particulars of the occurrence. Does the Lutheran Church hold out the possibility of any private revelations or have any process for investigating?

The Lutheran Confessions address the subject of divine revelations apart from the Word. Here are a couple of examples: “For the Church has the command to appoint ministers, which should be most pleasing to us, because we know that God approves this ministry, and is present in the ministry [that God will preach and work through men and those who have been chosen by men]. And it is of advantage, so far as can be done, to adorn the ministry of the Word with every kind of praise against fanatical men, who dream that the Holy Ghost is given not through the Word, but because of certain preparations of their own, if they sit unoccupied and silent in obscure places, waiting for illumination, as the Enthusiasts formerly taught, and the Anabaptists now teach.” (Apology of the Augsburg Confession, Article XIII)

Also, “And in those things which concern the spoken, outward Word, we must firmly hold that God grants His Spirit or grace to no one, except through or with the preceding outward Word, in order that we may [thus] be protected against the enthusiasts, i.e., spirits who boast that they have the Spirit without and before the Word, and accordingly judge Scripture or the spoken Word, and explain and stretch it at their pleasure, as Muenzer did, and many still do at the present day, who wish to be acute judges between the Spirit and the letter, and yet know not what they say or declare.” (The Smalcald Articles, Part III, Article VIII)

The quotations above are in the context of speaking against people who minimized the important work of the Holy Spirit through the Word of God.

This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body, states: “We believe that the Bible is fully sufficient, clearly teaching people all they need to know to get to heaven. It makes them ‘wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus’ (2 Timothy 3:15), and it equips them for ‘every good work’ (2 Timothy 3:17). Since God’s plan of salvation has been fully revealed in the canonical books of the Bible, we need and expect no other revelations (Hebrews 1:1,2). The church is built on the teachings of the apostles and prophets (Ephesians 2:20).”

The key phrase is “we need and expect no other revelations.” While God can certainly do anything, the Word he has given us is entirely sufficient.

How many unique individuals in the New Testament are named John?

I identified five individuals:

John the Baptist (Matthew 3:1)

John, son of Zebedee (Matthew 4:21) He was one of the twelve disciples and the human author of the gospel and epistles that bear his name.

John, the father of Simon Peter (John 1:42)

John, a member of the high priest’s family (Acts 4:6)

John Mark, a relative of Barnabas (Acts 12:25)

I believe the Bible is the word of God. I also believe man is inherently sinful. The words written in the Bible were written by sinful humans. The Bible was originally written in a now "dead" language. Taking this into account, I have noted some discrepancies in biblical accounts between different modern interpretations of the Bible. Even the tone of adjectives and adverbs alters the significance of Scripture. How do can I reconcile that the interpretations of the Bible, whether the original interpretation or modern interpretations, do not contain sinful self-serving human bias?

I would encourage you to keep “verbal inspiration” of the Bible in mind. Yes, “sinful humans” wrote the books of the Bible, but the Bible itself teaches us that the Holy Spirit is the ultimate author. “Above all, you must understand that no prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet’s own interpretation of things. For prophecy never had its origin in the human will, but prophets, though human, spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:20-21). “What we have received is not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, so that we may understand what God has freely given us. This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, explaining spiritual realities with Spirit-taught words” (1 Corinthians 2:12-13). While using people to write his word, the Holy Spirit guided their work so that their writing was exactly what he wanted them to write.

“All Scripture is God-breathed…” (2 Timothy 3:16). Jesus said: “Your word is truth” (John 17:17). All of Scripture is true because all of it is inspired.

Even though those Spirit-guided men wrote years ago, the languages they used are not “dead.” Many people today use modern variations of Hebrew and Greek as their native language. Much like the English language has changed over the years, so the biblical languages have undergone changes as well.

The words and languages of Scripture are not dead in another sense as well. The Bible says about itself: “For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart” (Hebrews 4:12).

When it comes to translations of the Bible, human bias can certainly enter the picture. People might translate with their faulty presuppositions in mind. That is why it is important to use reliable Bible translations and commentaries. This web site provides good information on Bible translations via this link.

God has convinced you that “The Bible is the word of God.” May he continue to instill that attitude and belief in you.

Genesis 10:32 states: "From these the nations spread out over the earth after the flood." I initially thought those words meant that it all sort of just happened in a somewhat orderly manner right away. However, immediately following is the account of the Tower of Babel. Then I wondered if this section further explains the exact details of how 10:32 unfolded. The general followed by the specific. Am I correct in my assumption? Generally, I see things in an orderly fashion; i.e., "first this happened, then this happened, then this... " Listed in the order they happened. Scripture isn't necessarily arranged that way, and I wondered if this is one of those occasions where a section of Scripture explains a previous section in a more detailed manner. Thank you.

The book of Genesis consists of ten “accounts.” The fourth account is the “sons of Noah,” Genesis 10:1-11:9. We find in this fourth account “The Table of Nations” and “The Tower of Babel.” The fourth account describes the movement of Noah’s descendants and the formation of nations.

What will be helpful to keep in mind is that the book of Genesis does not always present information in chronological order. What that means with your particular question is that chapter ten contains some information about nations that would follow the Tower of Babel incident in time.

What I would not do is read Genesis 10:32 and Genesis 1:1 as being in chronological order. The comments you provided with your question seem to acknowledge that.

Psalm 17:14b seems to have two distinctly different meanings in the two different NIV translations. What is the reason and what is the most accurate translation?

Your question illustrates the challenges involved in Bible translations. Translating from the original biblical languages into English or any other language is not a matter of “this word means only that.” Words can have different meanings and shadings. Examining how biblical writers used the same words in different or similar contexts can help shape the meaning.

In Psalm 17:14b we are dealing with a rare Hebrew word. So, context will be a determining factor in arriving at a meaning. But what context? In the verses preceding Psalm 17:14, the context is “the wicked.” The 2011 NIV reflects that. In the verse following Psalm 17:14, the context is “the righteous.” The 1984 NIV reflects that. Which translation is more accurate? Because context is so important in trying to understand this rare Hebrew word, both translations are accurate. Both translations can stand.

Why do we have we sin in us because of Adam and Eve's action? Why did God put the tree of knowledge of good and evil in the Garden of Eden to provide the opportunity for man to fall into sin?

The Bible speaks of imputed guilt (Romans 5:12-19). You and I were not personally present in the Garden of Eden when Adam and Eve disobeyed God’s command, but God has charged you and me and all people as being guilty of sin. In addition, Adam and Eve have passed down through the generations a sinful nature. With the exception of Jesus Christ, all people are conceived and born in sin (Psalm 51:5).

People sometimes object to one person’s sin in the Garden of Eden adversely affecting others. Romans chapter five also makes it clear that one person’s life of perfect obedience (Jesus Christ) has positively affected others.

Certainly, God knew that his perfect world would become corrupted by sin. While God could have prevented that from happening, he did not. The Bible does not tell us why. Still, God’s knowledge of future evil does not make him responsible for it.

The placement of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil—and the command not to eat from it—provided Adam and Eve with tangible opportunities to show their love and devotion to God. When they disobeyed God’s command, there were grave consequences. Yet, God promised a Savior (Genesis 3:15). Jesus Christ came into the world as true man in fulfillment of that promise to deliver us from sin, death and the power of the devil. Thanks be to God.

1 John 4:7b states: "Everyone who loves has been born of God and knows God." I believe that Scripture is the perfect, inerrant Word of God and so I want to know how to understand these words when I know an atheist who shows a lot of love to people but does not know God.

Context provides the answer to your question. In 1 John 4 the subject is Christian love: Christians showing love to one another. In the verse you cited, the apostle John explains that Christian love is the outward evidence of Christian faith. When God the Holy Spirit changes hearts through conversion and gives people spiritual life, there is evidence of that in Christians’ lives of love. Jesus’ parable of the sheep and the goats (Matthew 25:31-46) illustrates that truth. The book of James also treats that subject extensively.

Outward acts of love are not necessarily evidence of Christian faith. Unbelievers may do nice, loving things in life, but those nice things are not proof of saving faith. People who are separated from Jesus Christ because of unbelief are not able to do loving things that are pleasing to God (John 15:5; Hebrews 11:6).

Your question demonstrates one of the great differences between God and people: “The Lord does not look at the things people look at. People look at the outward appearance, but the Lord looks at the heart” (1 Samuel 16:7).

I commend you for your attitude of wanting to understand how the “perfect, inerrant Word of God” applies to a situation in your life.

This is about the question prompted by Genesis 1 & 2. What is WELS' explanation of the narrative of creation in regard to the order of creating animals and man? Genesis 1 explains animals were created first. Genesis 2 prompts man first (in verse 7) and again in verse 18. Is this an intentional typo? I feel God wants us to focus on life, he wants us to love life. And the pursuit of knowledge (i.e. creation) is something that can cause more harm than good. I would reach out to my own pastor but I feel embarrassed to cause chaos so directly and out of the blue.

What will be helpful is keeping in mind that Moses presents the six-day creation account in Genesis 1. In the following chapter, in Genesis 2, Moses goes into more detail of the creation of Adam—and then Eve. It is clear from the inspired record that God created animals before he created man.

The closest thing I can come to with a “WELS explanation” is what we state in This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body:

“1. We believe that the universe, the world, and the human race came into existence in the beginning when God created heaven and earth and all creatures (Genesis 1,2). Further testimony to this event is found in other passages of the Old and New Testaments (for example, Exodus 20:11; Hebrews 11:3). The creation happened in the course of six consecutive days of normal length by the power of God’s almighty word.

“2. We believe that the Bible presents a true, factual, and historical account of creation.”

This link will show you those paragraphs in the context of the statement of belief.

Is a person's soul created at conception, or was it created during the six days of creation?

The Bible does not teach that our souls come into existence prior to our conception.

The question people have raised over the years is whether God directly creates each soul at conception or if the soul is propagated along with the body at conception, coming from our parents. Most Lutheran theologians favor the latter view because the Bible does speak of spiritual conditions—and that concerns the soul—being passed on from one generation to the next (Genesis 5:3; Psalm 51:5). That view also places the responsibility for sin where it belongs: on people and not God (Psalm 51:4-6; Romans 5:12; James 1:13-14).

What does it mean in the Bible when it says, "You are a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek"? Thank you.

The words you cited first occur in Psalm 110:4. The writer to the Hebrews then quotes that verse in Hebrews 5:6 and 7:17.

Melchizedek is someone we meet in Genesis 14:18-20. There he is described as both “king of Salem” and “priest of God Most High.” The combination of king and priest in one person is unique and points ahead in time to Jesus Christ, who is our Prophet, Priest and King.

In his letter to the Hebrews, the inspired writer explains how Jesus is far superior to anyone and anything—including Melchizedek. The origins of Melchizedek are mysterious (Hebrews 7:3). That points to Jesus Christ who, as true man, was conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of the virgin Mary, yet as the eternal Son of God his “origins are from of old, from ancient times” (Micah 5:2). The priesthood of Melchizedek surpassed the Levitical priesthood (Hebrews 7). That points ahead to Jesus Christ, who has a “permanent priesthood” (Hebrew 7:24). Jesus’ sacrifice was “once for all” (Hebrews 7:27).

In short, the phrase you cited is a prophecy (Psalm 110:4) and fulfillment (Hebrews 5:6; 7:17) of Jesus’ service as our great high priest in sacrificing himself for our sins (Hebrews 7:27) and interceding for us when we sin (Hebrews 7:25).

Do animals have souls?

There is nothing in the Bible to support the idea that animals have souls. Everything the Bible teaches about being created originally in the image of God, being conceived and born in sin after the fall in Eden, being guilty of committing actual sins, being the objects of God’s redeeming love in Jesus, having body and soul reunited on the last day, and spreading the good news of salvation concerns people not animals.

Animals certainly were the result of God’s creative power (Genesis 1), but Adam came to recognize how uniquely different he was from the rest of God’s animate creation. We know that part of that difference is that Adam alone consisted of body and soul.

What is meant in Daniel and Mark concerning "the abomination that causes desolation"?

Daniel’s prophecy pointed ahead to troublesome times for God’s people. Conservative Bible scholars and commentators often point to the desecration of the temple in 167 B.C. by the Syrian ruler Antiochus IV Epiphanes, the destruction of the temple in 70 A.D. and the ongoing work of the Antichrist in the New Testament age as fulfillments of that prophecy.

Mark 12 clearly lists signs of the end times. Little wonder that when Christians like you and I see them, we echo the words of the apostle John: “Amen. Come, Lord Jesus” (Revelation 22:20).

When Christ said, It is finished, and we believe that he defeated sin, death and the devil, what is 1 Corinthians 15:24-26 referring to? Is not Christ preparing a place for us? Thank you for your time and consideration.

Jesus’ words on the cross “It is finished” (John 19:30) tell us that Jesus completely fulfilled God’s plan of salvation: he lived perfectly in our place and he endured the punishment our sins deserved. Jesus left nothing undone when it came to living up to his name, which means “Savior.”

When Jesus rose from the dead, he crushed Satan’s power (Genesis 3:15) and destroyed the power of death (1 Corinthians 15). But death remains, doesn’t it? It remains as a consequence of sin (Romans 6:23).

1 Corinthians 15:24 speaks of Jesus’ visible return to this world on the last day. On that day the resurrection of the dead will take place (John 5:28-29), eternal separation of Christians and non-Christians will take place (Matthew 25:31-46) and Satan will be put out of commission entirely (Revelation 20:10). Death will no longer affect God’s people (1 Corinthians 15:26).

Yes, Jesus is preparing a place for us (John 14:2-3). It is a place of perfection, beauty and glory (Revelation 21-22). What a loving God we have—to bless us now and in the future (1 John 3:1-2).

Is wearing a head covering in prayer/daily life (based on 1 Corinthians 11) for Lutheran women a personal choice?

Yes. God, through the apostle Paul, makes it clear that the practice of women’s head coverings was a local practice in Corinth and not a part of God’s will for all women of all time (1 Corinthians 11:16).

I am a woman who has been pursuing a degree in mathematics at university with the intention of teaching it at a post-secondary level. It is most likely that I would end up teaching at a co-ed college or university. If I understand the Bible correctly, it is wrong for a woman to instruct adult males in regard to religious matters. Does this apply to secular subjects? Specifically, is it permissible for a Christian woman to instruct adults solely with regard to the subject of mathematics?

I can respond to your questions from the perspective of serving on the faculty of Martin Luther College, the WELS college of ministry. An application of the biblical roles of men and women at this college is that “the teaching of courses in which God’s Word is primary and paramount or in which it is used to judge and/or evaluate the matters being taught is reserved for male professors.” There is the understanding that mathematics is a discipline in which men and women can serve as professors at this college. You can use this information to apply it to your own situation—teaching in a secular setting.

Hello, sir. I was talking with my Roman Catholic girlfriend about the doctrine of Sola Scriptura this morning and she said, "If there are so many ways of looking at the Bible, how do you know which is correct?" I told her that you just let Scripture interpret Scripture, not our opinions. What would you have told her?

You said it well. An important principle in interpreting the Bible is to let Scripture interpret Scripture. In practical terms, that means that if we are having difficulty understanding a particular section of the Bible, we look to other parts of the Bible that contain the same subject matter to derive meaning of that difficult section.

In addition, we take into account matters like genre. God communicated his message to us in the Bible through different kinds of literature: historical narrative, poetry, prophecy-teaching, epistle and apocalyptic. Recognizing the genre will point the way to proper interpretation.  It is also important to recognize symbolic and figurative language from literal language.  Understanding words in their context is critical to accurate biblical interpretation.

While we need to use our minds to read and interpret Scripture, we do not let human reason change the meaning of Scripture.

Finally, as Lutheran Christians, we look to Scripture alone as the source and foundation of our faith. This month’s Light for our path column in Forward in Christ addressed that point.

God bless your conversations with your girlfriend!

I see a lot of videos circling around among friends in chat groups, where Christian missionaries or pastors are talking loudly in tongues and pushing people backwards and telling them they are anointed with the Holy Spirit. It's so sickening to see people mocking at Christianity. Is this all true, and are those poor people required to fall back and roll on the ground in the name of the Holy Spirit? Is that what our loving and merciful God expects? What's even more intriguing is that I have read in the Bible that talking in tongues is a gift, but I do not know what it sounds like and how it's done. Appreciate your response. Thank You!

Acts 2 records the miraculous gift of speaking in known, intelligible languages that the Lord’s followers did not previously know. While God of course can do anything and can give similar gifts today if he so chooses, we have no such promise that he will do that. This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body, addresses that point. “The Holy Spirit also equips the church with all the spiritual gifts it needs for its well-being (1 Corinthians 12:4-11). During the beginning of the New Testament era, special charismatic gifts were given to the church, such as signs, miracles, and speaking in tongues. These gifts were connected with the ministry of the apostles (2 Corinthians 12:12). There is no evidence in Scripture that we today should expect the continuation of such charismatic gifts.”

On the other hand, there can be the expectation and demand in Pentecostal churches that the Holy Spirit will give people the ability to utter sounds that are not known languages. A good course of action is to compare the teachings of those churches with the Bible. When we recognize that the teachings of churches are not the teachings of the Bible, then we do not believe their message or follow their instructions.

Today many Christians are being told that speaking in tongues is a sign that they are God’s children. That is unfortunate because the Bible tells us that we are not to expect the same spiritual gift in all Christians (1 Corinthians 12:27-31). More than that, the certainty of our status as God’s children is not dependent on us and what we can do, or claim to do. That certainty comes from God, as he calls us his own because of his work (2 Corinthians 1:21-22; Titus 3:4-7).

Finally, the apostle Paul made it clear that it is clear communication in the church that benefits speakers and their listeners (1 Corinthians 14:1-25). Communication that is not clear is not beneficial.

Job 1:6-7 - "One day the angels came to present themselves before the Lord, and Satan also came with them. The Lord said to Satan, 'Where have you come from?'” How can Satan, who was cast out of heaven due to his rebellion, return and appear before God?

You ask an interesting question. All we know are the circumstances: at one point holy angels presented themselves before God, and Satan was among them.

What we know from Scripture is that God banished Satan and other angels from heaven after they rebelled against him. God sent those fallen angels to hell (2 Peter 2:4). While hell is the eternal home of Satan and other evil angels, those spirit beings have the ability to roam the earth (1 Peter 5:8) as God allows; they are not entirely confined to hell at this point. The opening chapters of the book of Job illustrate very clearly that Satan is very much under God’s control and can do only what God permits.

The time is coming when Satan and his minions will be confined to hell forever (Revelation 20:10) and will not be able to bother Christians anymore.  How we long for that day!

A future “Light for our path” column in Forward in Christ, based on a similar question, will explore this subject matter further.

When Jesus was being crucified, why did He say to God, "My God, My God, why hast though forsaken me?" Did God deny Jesus as His Son and the Savior?

When Jesus spoke those words from Psalm 22, he was describing the punishment he was enduring: he was being abandoned and forsaken by his heavenly Father. Jesus was acting as our substitute. By our sins, we deserved to have God sentence us to hell and forsake us forever. On the cross, Jesus stepped in as our substitute and suffered what amounts to hell. Jesus did that so we would never have to know what abandonment from God is all about.

God forsaking God? Martin Luther asked: “Who can understand it?” Thankfully saving faith is not a matter of having perfect understanding (Hebrews 11:1). In the Bible God speaks the truth, and Spirit-worked faith accepts it.

At Calvary God showed himself to be a just God by punishing sin in his Son, and he demonstrated that he is a gracious God by sacrificing his Son to spare sinners (1 John 4:10).

And what is our Christian response to all this? We join in the chorus of praise: “Worthy is the Lamb, who was slain, to receive power and wealth and wisdom and strength and honor and glory and praise!” (Revelation 5:12) “To him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be praise and honor and glory and power, for ever and ever!” (Revelation 5:13)

The Jewish practice of keriah is tearing of clothes when a loved one dies: why did they do this?

It was an ancient custom of expressing grief, anger, shock and sorrow. Its purpose was to serve as an outward display of inward emotions.

In that regard, it is interesting to see the message God had for the people of Judah through the prophet Joel: “Rend your heart and not your garments. Return to the LORD your God, for he is gracious and compassionate, slow to anger and abounding in love, and he relents from sending calamity” (Joel 2:13). Much like Isaiah would write later (Isaiah 1:11-17), the prophet Joel informed God’s people that God was interested in much more than outward indications of repentance and faith. God was—and still is—interested first and foremost in the condition of people’s hearts. God wants all to repent (2 Peter 3:9) and enjoy salvation through faith in Christ (1 Timothy 2:4).

How do we know that a person or a group of people didn't make everything up? How do we know all this is true? Why doesn't anyone get raised from the dead after three days now?

Allow me to answer your first two questions by passing along information from a recent “Light for our path” column in Forward in Christ. This link will take you to that column.

When it comes to miracles like people being raised from the dead, God could certainly do that today if he wanted. There was reason to do that during Jesus’ earthly life and ministry, when the Lord backed up his powerful message with powerful acts, like raising people from the dead.

On the last day, God will raise all the dead (John 5:28-29; Acts 24:15).

How do we reconcile 1 John 5:1-4 "1 Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves the father loves his child as well. 2 This is how we know that we love the children of God: by loving God and carrying out his commands. 3 In fact, this is love for God: to keep his commands. And his commands are not burdensome, 4 for everyone born of God overcomes the world. This is the victory that has overcome the world, even our faith." with the fact that we sin daily? Seems to me they completely contradict each other. Thanking you in advance.

You notice that the apostle John did not state in verse two: “This is how we know that we love God: by loving God perfectly and carrying out his commands perfectly.” Nor did John write in verse three: “In fact, this is love for God: to keep his commands perfectly.”

The apostle’s point is that Christian faith shows itself in love toward God and love toward other people. Faith is not a quality that is hidden in a person’s heart. (That is an important emphasis in the book of James as well.)

Is our love toward God and others perfect? Not by any stretch of the imagination. Our love toward God and others is imperfect and inconsistent. But that deficiency on our part is not what the apostle John is concentrating on in the verses you cited. In those verses he is simply demonstrating how faith and love go together.

When it comes to our love for God and others, and God’s love for us, it is no contest. God’s love is perfect and powerful (1 John 4:9-10).

I have a language translation question about a specific verse in Scripture. Regarding Romans 5:20, my NIV Bible uses the word "increased" twice in that verse--the first time referring to sin--and the second time referring to grace. I think I remember either reading or being told somewhere that in the original language, one Greek word for "increased" is used referring to sin ("where sin increased"), but an entirely different Greek word is used in referring to grace ("grace increased all the more"). The latter, as I understand it, is a synonym for "increased", yet is much more than just a simple increase. It was explained to me that this Greek word can more accurately be defined as "an outpouring, or overflowing." Is my memory or understanding of this correct? If I take a glass of water and add a very small drop to it, I have by definition "increased" the volume of water in the glass, albeit by a very small amount. But to add such a volume of water so as to cause the cup to "overflow" is another matter altogether. Thus, if my understanding of this is correct, does not the English translation of this verse fail to convey the idea of an "overflowing" of God's grace. To simply use the word "increased" both times doesn't seem to do that verse justice, does it?

Your memory is correct. There are two different Greek verbs that the NIV translates as “increased” in Romans 5:20. That translation tries to show the difference in the greater outpouring of God’s grace by saying that it “increased all the more.”

Many Bible translations I checked used the same English word for both verbs but tried to show the difference in qualifying words: “all the more, “more exceedingly,” etc. Some Bible translations tried to show the difference by using different words. “Where sin increased, grace multiplied even more” (Common English Bible). “Where sin increased, grace abounded all the more” (New American Standard Bible). One commentator wrote: “Where the sin increased, the grace superabounded.”

Regardless of how Bible translations render it, the beautiful truth remains: God’s grace in Christ has completely removed our sins.

My question concerns the Bible study "Public ministers of the gospel are called to serve" found on page 35 of the November 2017 issue of Forward in Christ. The phrase "Truly Lutheran public ministers" is used repeatedly. Would dropping "Truly Lutheran" from this phase change the lesson learned from the Bible Study? Thanks!

Not wanting to speak for the author of the Bible study, I forwarded your question to him.

Here is his response: “The intent of saying ‘truly Lutheran’ is to point out that some distinctly Lutheran doctrinal emphases make for a distinctly Lutheran public ministry that recognizes that public ministers of the gospel are divinely and properly called to serve God’s people with the Word and sacraments. We believe, teach, and confess what the Bible says, that the Word and sacraments are the means by which the Spirit creates and nurtures faith in Christ. Most other Christian churches either do not believe this, or do not emphasize this. That affects how they view the purpose of spiritual leaders in the church. To be a ‘truly Lutheran’ pastor is to understand that the focus of his ministry is to ‘proclaim the Word faithfully and administer the sacraments rightly.’ Dropping ‘truly Lutheran’ wouldn’t necessarily change the lesson learned from the Bible study, but it wouldn’t fit the overall theme of the series (‘What It Means to Be Truly Lutheran’) and it would miss the uniqueness and distinctiveness of the Lutheran public ministry.

Hello. I would like to read the books of the Bible in chronological order. The problem is that I don't know what the proper order is. Can you help me out and provide me with a list? I would at least like to get the letters of Paul and the four gospels correct. Thanks.

Your problem of not knowing the chronological order of the books of the Bible is not unique. None of us knows with certainty the order in which God’s prophets and apostles wrote the books of the Bible. We can be sure of the order of the bookends of the Bible—Genesis and Revelation—but there is not absolute certainty with the chronological order of all the books in between.

That uncertainty is true regarding the span of time over which the Old Testament books were written (approximately 1,100 years) and the New Testament books (in the area of 50 years).

While there are chronological Bible versions available, the order of books in them is not definitive.

What you might find valuable for your Bible reading is a Bible background book like Book of Books. It is available from Northwestern Publishing House. While it provides some chronological information regarding the books of the Bible, its strength is the historical background and synopsis of each book.

Finally, I think you would agree with me that the content of the Bible is more important than the order in which God gave us the individual books of the Bible. For the certainty of that content, we praise God.

I had a conversation with someone about Scripture and something she said that confused me was that since since society changes, God's laws and His Scripture changes - meaning also that the things God calls sin are now acceptable parts of society, so they are no longer sins. For example, now it is no longer a sin for people to have children without being married first because it has become a normal part of our society. She mentioned how the Bible says it is a sin for women to have their heads uncovered and how now most women don't follow that. Does God's word change with societal changes and if not, how is the example of the women wearing head coverings explained?

God’s word does not change with societal changes. God does not change with societal changes. Consider what God says about himself and his word.

“God is not human, that he should lie, not a human being, that he should change his mind” (Numbers 23:19). “But you [God] remain the same, and your years will never end” (Psalm 102:27). “Your word, LORD, is eternal; it stands firm in the heavens” (Psalm 119:89). “The grass withers and the flowers fall, but the word of our God endures forever” (Isaiah 40:8). “I the Lord do not change” (Malachi 3:6). “Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will never pass away” (Matthew 24:35). “Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever” (Hebrews 13:8). “Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows” (James 1:17).

People do not change what God calls sin by their consensus of words or actions. If that were the case, the flood of Noah’s day would never have taken place. The truth of the matter is that people’s sins brought down God’s punishment: “The LORD saw how great the wickedness of the human race had become on the earth, and that every inclination of the thoughts of the human heart was only evil all the time” (Genesis 6:5).

If ending the lives of the unborn in the womb has become an “acceptable part of society,” it does not mean that that murder is no longer a sin. The unchanging word of God says, “You shall not murder” (Exodus 20:13). If having children without first being married has become an “acceptable part of society,” it does not mean that sexual relations outside the marriage bond is no longer sinful. The unchanging word of God says, “Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral” (Hebrews 13:4). People do not determine morality, or right or wrong. God does.

You want to correct your friend’s understanding of what the Bible says about women’s head coverings. In 1 Corinthians 11:16, the apostle Paul identifies the head coverings of the Christian women in Corinth as a “practice” or custom. A local practice or custom is far different from a universal principle from God, binding all women of all time to do the same. Because the Bible limits the instruction of head coverings to the women of Corinth in the first century by calling this a “practice,” women of other places and times are not bound to that instruction.

It is dangerous when people think they can undo God’s law. Similarly, it is dangerous when people think they can undo and replace God’s way of salvation. If the majority of people think they can save themselves by being good and trying hard, that does not undo what God says about salvation (Mark 16:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:4-7).

You could help the person who spoke to you the best by sharing some of these Bible passages with her. God bless such a conversation.

I recently was having a discussion about women voting at WELS meetings. Please quote some Bible passages so I can clarify my point of view as to what the Bible has to say about this topic.

The Bible does not address the specific topic of voting in church assemblies. That is not surprising since our congregational life today is different from that of biblical days. What we need to do, then, is apply broad, general scriptural principles to our complex congregational life today.

Elsewhere on this website you will find This We Believe: A Statement of Belief of the WELS. The “Church and Ministry” section addresses your question on the basis of Scripture: “We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11,12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:33-35).”

One of those assemblies is the voters’ assembly. While women in WELS congregations do not cast votes in voters’ assemblies, that does not speak at all to their status in God’s sight. Scripture says to all Christians: “So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise” (Galatians 3:26-29).

What does the Bible say about dreams? I've been having a lot of dreams lately, and I am trying to figure out if they mean anything or if it is just stories my mind has made up while sleeping. I also ask this because are so many websites out there that interpret dreams, and I wonder how much is real and how much is fake and how to tell the difference.

The Bible does not address the kinds of dreams you and I might have. As you suggest, the information that enters our minds before we sleep can easily become the stuff of dreams.

Perhaps you would find value in adapting the following hymn verse as a bedtime prayer: “When in the night I sleepless lie, My soul with heav’nly thoughts supply; Let no ill dreams disturb my rest, No pow’rs of darkness me distress. Praise God, from whom all blessings flow; Praise him, all creatures here below; Praise him above, ye heav’nly host; Praise Father, Son, and Holy Ghost.” (Christian Worship 592:3)

Hello, I agree with WELS that the Bible is the inerrant Word of God, but I have always wondered what the water in the sky above the vault is at the beginning of Genesis. What is your explanation? Thanks so much for your time!

Your question addresses the second day of creation: “And God said, ‘Let there be a vault between the waters to separate water from water.’ So God made the vault and separated the water under the vault from the water above it. And it was so. God called the vault ‘sky.’ And there was evening, and there was morning—the second day” (Genesis 1:6-8).

In the People’s Bible Commentary on Genesis, Prof. John Jeske offered two possible explanations for the water in the sky above the vault. “There are those who think that ‘the water above the expanse’ consisted of the clouds, the huge quantities of atmospheric water vapor which are held in suspension and are periodically precipitated in the form of rain or snow, only in turn to evaporate and return to the clouds. This is the hydrologic system under which we live today, and there are those who believe this same system was in operation on the second day of creation.

“There are many, however, who have difficulty with that view. In Genesis 2:5 we learn that ‘the Lord God had not sent rain on the earth.’ How long did that rainlessness last? Is it possible that the hydrologic system initiated on the second day of creation was completely different from the one under which we live?

“Many have found support for this in 2 Peter 3:3-7…Many have seen in St. Peter’s words an indication that the flood brought about a basic change in earth’s hydrologic system. In that case the ‘water above the expanse’ may well have been a vast transparent canopy of water vapor…This huge canopy would have provided a uniformly warm temperate climate and a healthful environment for earth dwellers.” (Pages 15-16)

The biblical creation account presents a wise and loving God who made all things in an orderly way by his powerful word. All creation praises him—even the “waters above the skies” (Psalm 148:4).

Where in the Bible does it say that we as believers deserve the punishment of hell? There are certainly many verses in the Bible that say that the punishment of sin is death (e.g. Romans 6:23), but these are all referring to physical death. There are also many verses that say that a lack of faith deserves hell as a punishment (2 Thessalonians 1:8-9), but where does it say that the act of sin is deserving of hell? On WELS documents I have read online (such as in the Sin Questions section), there is constant reference to us deserving hell without any scriptural backing and in church I am repeatedly told that I deserve hell. Our loving God does not say a single word about a believer deserving hell, so why are we telling congregations what God does not? If it is inaccurate that we deserve hell as believers, why give people that awfully false message when instead the message should be rejoicing that our faith ensures us eternal life with God?

As you indicated, the Bible does speak of sin meriting death (Romans 6:23). Ezekiel 18:20 states similar truth: “The one who sins is the one who will die.”

When the Bible connects death with sin, it does so in three different ways. The Bible speaks of temporal death (Hebrews 9:27), spiritual death (Ephesians 2:1) and eternal death (Matthew 25:46). The basic idea behind death is separation. When temporal death takes place, the body and the soul are separated. Spiritual death refers to unbelievers whose souls are separated from God in this life because of sin and unbelief. Eternal death is the eternal separation of people in hell from God.

In the Garden of Eden, God instructed Adam, a perfect child of God in every way, that “you must not eat from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, for when you eat from it you will certainly die” (Genesis 2:17). Adam’s transgression meant that his body would, from that time on, head toward the grave. But the consequences of his transgression were much more serious than that. Sin had dashed the perfect relationship he had enjoyed with God and with Eve. Sin threatened to separate him from God forever. A loving God stepped in and promised a Savior who would crush sin and Satan and death (Genesis 3:15).

The nature of sin is that it separates people from a holy God (Isaiah 59:2). Sin is serious. Disobedience merits God’s punishment (Galatians 3:10). Thankfully, Jesus took on himself the punishment our sins deserved (Galatians 3:13).

So, where does this leave us as Christians? We have a sinful nature. That connection to Adam alone convicts us as “guilty” in God’s court of law (Romans 5:12-21). Our sinful nature is thoroughly corrupt (Romans 7:18) and wants nothing to do with God or godliness. Because following the lead of our sinful nature can lead to (more than physical) death (Romans 8:13), we seek to keep our sinful nature under control by saying “no” to sin and by responding to sin in our lives with contrition and repentance.

We still sin. Any sin is deserving of God’s punishment (Galatians 3:10). As Christians though, we stand in grace (Romans 5:2). We enjoy forgiveness of sins through faith in Jesus Christ (Romans 5:1).

Because sin is serious, Jesus instructs us what to do when a Christian sins against us (Matthew 18:15-20). The book of James ends on this note: “Whoever turns a sinner from the error of their way will save them from death and cover over a multitude of sins” (James 5:20). That is how serious sin—and unrepented sin—is.

You can see that part of the answer to your question is that Christians need the message of God’s law and the message of God’s gospel. Because of our sinful nature, we need the message of the law to serve as a mirror and a curb. For our comfort and the strengthening of our new self, we need the message of the gospel. As children of God, the message of the gospel will predominate, but there is definitely a place for the law.

If Baptists can go to heaven without repenting of Baptist beliefs that are sinful, why can't someone who commits murder or homosexual sins and doesn't repent and say they still are believers also go to heaven?

What you want to do is differentiate between saving faith that is weak, and impenitence. Impenitence over sin bars people from the kingdom of God (1 Corinthians 6:9-10).

Certainly, rejection of any part of God’s word is serious (Deuteronomy 4:2; 12:32; Revelation 22:18-19) and potentially faith destroying. Lutheran dogmaticians have acknowledged the possibility of a “happy inconsistency” when there might be saving faith in a person’s heart along with doctrinal error because of ignorance or weakness of faith, but we cannot identify this with accuracy, so we leave it in God’s hands.

Your question underscores the importance of regarding all of Scripture as truth (John 17:17) and living life in accordance with God’s will (2 Corinthians 5:15).

Since God says we are to respect our elders and leaders and parents, if an elder, leader, or parent doesn't follow God and tells us to do something against God, who do we listen to?

If we find ourselves in situations in which we receive conflicting instructions from people and God, the biblical principle is that we honor and obey God (Acts 5:29).

What does the phrase "To the Jew first" mean?

I am understanding your question to be in connection with Romans 1:16 – “For I am not ashamed of the gospel, because it is the power of God that brings salvation to everyone who believes: first to the Jew, then to the Gentile.”

A starting point is keeping in mind that the content of John 3:16 is not a truth restricted to the New Testament. No, God has always loved all the people of the world. While God promised and sent a Savior for all the people of the world, God made those promises to and fulfilled those promises through the people of Israel, the Jews. For that reason, the gospel message needed to be shared especially with the Jews, but not to the exclusion of Gentiles.

Jesus demonstrated that close connection between God’s plan of salvation and the Jewish people when he spoke of his ministry being directed “only to the lost sheep of Israel” (Matthew 15:24), when he reminded the Samaritan woman that “salvation is from the Jews” (John 4:22) and when he instructed his followers to spread his word (Luke 24:47; Acts 1:8).

The phrase in your question references the people through whom God fulfilled all the promises of the Savior. It does not speak of a God who shows favoritism (Acts 10:34-35; Romans 2:11).

Has WELS always believed in "free will" in the works of this life? I grew up WELS and I thought I distinctly remembered that WELS did not believe in free will. I see the website says: Human beings have a free will in works of this life. But only the Holy Spirit, working through God’s Word, can lead a person to love God. So now I'm confused. Maybe I have just misunderstood the secret of my life's choices the last 55 years?

Ever since the fall into sin in Eden, the free will that people have is limited to making decisions about their earthly lives. So, people choose to marry or remain single, enter into this or that vocation, live in a certain area, etc. Of course, when it comes to making decisions like those, people may not always get what they want.

After the fall into sin, people by nature can choose only evil in the spiritual realm. “The mind governed by the flesh is hostile to God; it does not submit to God’s law, nor can it do so” (Romans 8:7). “Every inclination of the thoughts of the human heart was only evil all the time” (Genesis 6:5). “Every inclination of the human heart is evil from childhood” (Genesis 8:21). Because of natural sin and unbelief, people are God’s enemies; they want to do only that which displeases God.

Then, when we consider passages like 1 Corinthians 2:14, Ephesians 2:1 and Colossians 2:13, we understand that even if we wanted to choose to believe in Jesus, we could not do that because we were spiritually blind and dead by nature. All we could do was sin and reject God.

Thankfully, God did what we could not and did not want to do: he connected us to Jesus Christ in faith so we could enjoy all the blessings he won by his holy life and innocent death, and which are guaranteed by his glorious resurrection from the dead.

As a child of God, my free will is much different than before my conversion. Now my new self wants to use the means of grace to strengthen my faith; now I want to follow God’s law as a tangible way of showing my thankfulness to him for my salvation in Jesus his Son. However, even when I, as a child of God, want to do those things in life that are good and godly, I recognize that it is God working in me: “It is God who works in you to will and to act in order to fulfill his good purpose” (Philippians 2:13).

As you look back on your life as a child of God, and as you look ahead, thank God for the wonderful freedom he gives you to determine each day how to serve him and others.

Could you give me some background on Neanderthals? Where they came from and did they they mix with humans to create a different species ? My son works for a company that does DNA testing and I am very worried about him and what they are teaching him. I would like to have some solid biblical answers for him but it is really hard to find any Christian answers on this. I hope you will be able to tell me where I can get detailed information of this subject so I can relay it to him and that God can intervene and save his soul. I am deeply worried. Thank you.

You and your son can find reading material on the website of Lutheran Science Institute, an organization within WELS. Putting “Neanderthal” in the search box at the bottom of their web pages will bring up numerous articles for both of you to read. There is also a “Contact Us” option on their website for any follow up you might have.

In addition to reading through this information that you requested, do encourage your son to be faithful in his use of God’s gospel in word and sacrament. It is through the gospel that God creates faith and strengthens faith (Romans 1:16). By strengthening our faith, God enables us to identify and reject worldly wisdom (Colossians 2:8).

God bless you and your son.

Did Jesus and Paul preach different gospels? I read someone's writing (claiming to be teaching clear biblical truth) that Jesus' "gospel of the kingdom" is different than Paul's "gospel of grace."

Jesus and Paul preached the same gospel. Jesus taught that faith alone saves (Mark 16:16; John 3:14-16). Paul taught the same message (Romans 3:28; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5). Jesus taught that he is the only Savior for people’s sins (John 14:6). Paul taught the same message (1 Corinthians 3:11).

The kingdom of which Jesus often spoke during his earthly ministry refers to his gracious rule in people’s hearts through faith (Luke 17:20-21). Paul taught that same message (1 Corinthians 4:20).

The teachings of Paul and Jesus are the same. That should not surprise us, as Paul explained that the source of his teachings was Jesus Christ himself (Galatians 1:11-12). Your question addresses the perfect unity of the Bible. For that unity, we thank God.

What does the Bible say about a miscarriage? My son recently lost a very early stage child due to this and I am curious how our church body views this. Thank you.

Allow me to pass along my sympathy to you and your family. May the God of all comfort (2 Corinthians 1:3-11) uphold and strengthen you all through his gospel.

I have to say that the Bible does not specifically address your question. What we do know from Scripture is that: all people are sinful from the very beginning of life (Psalm 51:5; John 3:6); Jesus lived and died for all people (2 Corinthians 5:15; 1 John 2:2); his kingdom includes infants and children (Luke 18:15-16); and, God uses his gospel to work saving faith in people (Romans 10:17). When a life ends before we can administer Baptism, we leave that person in the hands of a holy, just and loving God whose ways and wisdom far surpass ours (Isaiah 55:8-9; Romans 11:33-36).

Perhaps you will find value in reading a short article that Martin Luther wrote in 1542. The article is “Comfort for women who have had a miscarriage.” This link will take you to that article. While we recognize that prayer is not a means of grace, Luther does place appropriate emphasis on the power of prayer (James 5:16) in the context of parents who prayed for their unborn child in the womb.

God bless you and your family.

How can the Bible be called infallible and inspired when the personal name of the One who inspired it was removed some 7,000 to 8,000 times? I know the words Lord/LORD/God/Jehovah etc. are replacements along with other words, but these are admitted changes to Scripture, thus admissions of errancy (and without clear scriptural support while only supported by traditions of men rooted in rabbinic Judaism and Catholicism). The name YHWH was given as a remembrance, a blessing, a statement of jealousy for His will and people. The name YHWH should not be hidden/cloaked within His Word. To be clear, this question is not about speaking out loud the personal name, but restoring it to Scripture. Perhaps the most telling question to ask is this, “Would the Almighty be pleased or displeased by His name not being directly found (everywhere He put it) in His Scriptures?”

Elsewhere on this website you will find information related to your questions. The following two paragraphs are from a report of the Translation Liaison Committee of our synod. Their comments are in the context of an evaluation of the then-Holman Christian Standard Bible. Their observations are applicable to your questions.

“We will grant that there is a certain consensus among scholars that something like ‘Yahweh’ approximates the way this divine name would have been pronounced. To suggest that this view is unanimous, however, would overstate the case. At any rate, the point is really moot, since we believe it is neither possible nor necessary to recapture exactly the way an ancient Israelite would have pronounced the name of God. We disagree with any suggestion that, if only we could pronounce the Tetragrammaton [YHWH] more in keeping with the way an ancient Israelite did, the result would somehow be a more ‘accurate’ presentation of God’s Word, or a deeper relationship with God for a modern Bible reader.

“Furthermore, we question the assertion that ‘Yahweh’ is ‘the personal name of God (emphasis ours)’—as if God has only one personal name, which can be separated categorically from God’s titles or epithets. On one hand, there is the long-standing debate over the etymology of ‘Yahweh’ and what exactly the word connotes (cf. God’s own etymology in Exodus 3:14). On the other hand, we wonder whether it is really true that when used in Scripture, [“Adonai,” “El,” “Shaddai,” and “Elyon” – the Hebrew words occur here] cannot be considered ‘personal names’ for God in any sense at all.”

By substituting “LORD” for the Tetragrammaton, Bible translators are following the practice of Old Testament believers. The truth of Scripture is that God has revealed himself by many, many names and titles. All those names and titles give us information about the only true God. When we use God’s name to pray, praise and give thanks, we “hallow” his name. God is certainly pleased with that.

Would you please explain 1 Corinthians 15:29? "If the dead are not raised at all why are people baptized for them?" I believe the dead in Christ will be raised when Jesus returns, but I don't understand the "baptizing of the dead" part. Thank you.

If you were to read the commentary on this verse in The People’s Bible (1 Corinthians, pages 149-150), you would find this: “Our first impression is that early Christians practiced vicarious baptism; one person could be baptized for another and thus could transfer his salvation to another. But the Bible clearly teaches that each person is saved by his own baptism and by his own faith. A God-fearing mother cannot believe or be baptized for a godless son.

“If it was not a vicarious baptism that Paul had in mind, then what was the practice he was referring to? More than three hundred different interpretations of this passage have been offered. Several of the interpretations that put the best construction on the practice are: 1) The relative of a Christian who has died may wish to be baptized in order to see this Christian again; 2) He may want to express the hope that a Christian friend who had died will rise; 3) The baptism and the godly life and final death of their friends in the sure hope of a blessed resurrection prompt the living also to desire and receive baptism for the same blessed purpose.

“In any event, even if there was a baptism for the dead that was prompted by the false notion that the baptism of a living person would benefit an ungodly person already dead (baptism by proxy), the practice would have been meaningless if the dead don’t rise. By referring to such an unscriptural practice (if, indeed, it existed) Paul was not condoning it. He was simply stating that even such a custom was a testimony to the reality of the resurrection.”

In summary, the apostle Paul speaks of a practice of which the Christians in Corinth were aware, but we today are not. That leaves us with questions—unanswered questions. Regardless of the unknown practice, the emphasis in that verse and throughout the entire fifteenth chapter is on Jesus’ physical resurrection from the dead. There is no uncertainty about that event. Many eyewitnesses saw the risen Lord. Earlier in 1 Corinthians 15 Paul listed some of those eyewitnesses.

The People’s Bible series offers explanation and commentary on all the books of the Bible. Your church library may have that series. The series is also available through Northwestern Publishing House.

Was Luke a follower of Jesus, because he is not listed as one of the twelve apostles?

We have little information about Luke. You are correct in noting that he is not listed as one of the twelve apostles. Luke himself explains that he was not an eyewitness of Jesus’ ministry (Luke 1:2).

At some point, God brought Luke to saving faith in Jesus Christ. Luke accompanied the apostle Paul on his second and third missionary journeys. In 2 Timothy—likely the last epistle that Paul wrote—the apostle speaks of Luke being with him in Rome (2 Timothy 4:11).

While the information we have about Luke is scant, we are thankful for the Spirit-inspired content he has given us in the Bible books he wrote: Luke and Acts.

What does the Bible teach about tattoos? A friend quoted Leviticus 19:28. Said the Nazi's used this as a reason to tattoo Jews since it was forbidden by God. Thus, Christians should not get tattoos. I said it was part of the Levitical laws pertaining to the Israelites and does not apply to New Testament Christians. The person was stunned that parts of the Bible no longer apply to us; felt strongly that all of Scripture applies to us.

As it turns out, the March 2017 “Light for our path” column in Forward in Christ will address a very similar question. So as not to provide a spoiler, I will pass along a brief response in this forum.

You are correct in noting that the instruction in Leviticus no longer applies to New Testament Christians. The prohibition of tattoos is part of God’s instruction to the people of Israel as they traveled to the promised land of Canaan. Because heathen Canaanite customs included tattoos, God instructed his people to avoid practices that would have identified them as followers of false gods. As that prohibition is limited to Leviticus, God’s directive involved only the Israelites and targeted the first commandment, not the fifth commandment, which concerns the care of our bodies.

If your friend was stunned to hear that parts of the Bible no longer apply to us and believes that all of Scripture applies to Christians today, I have to wonder—in all seriousness—if your friend offers animal sacrifices (Leviticus 2-7); celebrates the Feast of Unleavened Bread, the Feast of Harvest and the Feast of Ingathering (Exodus 23); observes the Year of Jubilee (Leviticus 25); destroys a place of residence because of persistent mildew (Leviticus 14); or, a host of other Old Testament instructions.

Your friend will want to understand and recognize that Christians today are not bound to Old Testament civil and ceremonial laws. God’s moral law remains. The Ten Commandments serve as a good summary of the moral law.

Beyond this, the upcoming column in Forward in Christ will address the application of Christian freedom and tattoos.

I know that every doctrine in the Bible is important because all come from God. My question is, what doctrines must a person believe to be considered Christian? (For example, there will be Catholics in heaven who died trusting in Christ as their Savior, while there will not be Mormons in heaven since their doctrines involving Christ are not scriptural.) Is there a "key doctrine list" somewhere?

The apostle Paul’s answer to the jailer of Philippi’s question highlights a doctrine that is absolutely essential for salvation: “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved” (Acts 16:31). Faith in Jesus Christ as Savior—justification through faith alone, by grace alone—is necessary for salvation. Saving Christian faith recognizes Jesus Christ as the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity. For this reason, the Athanasian Creed states that the doctrine of the Trinity and the doctrine of Jesus are essential for salvation.

As you indicated, all doctrines of the Bible are important. Because Christian doctrines are not isolated and stand-alone teachings, a denial of one doctrine has the potential of leading to the denial of more and more doctrines, and eventually threatening saving faith. This is why we seek to remain firmly grounded in God’s word always (Ephesians 3:14-19).

What is the role of the 10 Commandments for WELS Lutherans? For New Testament Christians? Does the WELS agree with Paul?

A starting point to your questions is that the Ten Commandments (Exodus 20; Deuteronomy 5) are part of the Mosaic Law that God gave to his Old Testament people of Israel. The Mosaic Law had limited purpose and duration. Its obligations ended when Jesus Christ came into our world as the fulfilment of all the prophecies of the Messiah.

We can see from the Mosaic Law wording of the third commandment (“Sabbath day”) and the fourth commandment (reference to the Promised Land) that not all the content of the Ten Commandments applies to New Testament followers of the Lord.

So, how do Christians view the Ten Commandments? We rightly regard them as a summary of God’s moral law: his will for all people of all time. We do see Jesus (Luke 18:20) and the apostle Paul (Romans 13:9) restating some of the commandments in a different order from the Old Testament listing. (I am thinking this was your reference to the apostle Paul.) Presenting the commandments in that way illustrates how we, as New Testament Christians, are free from the Mosaic Law wording of the Ten Commandments and yet look to the Ten Commandments as a summary of God’s will for our lives.

As a mirror, the Ten Commandments show us God’s demands for holy living and our failure to live up to those demands. As a rule or guide, the Ten Commandments lay out for us tangible ways in which we can express our gratitude to God for our forgiveness of sins. Jesus kept the law perfectly for us (Romans 5:19; 10:4; Galatians 4:4-5) and paid the penalty we deserved for not keeping God’s law perfectly (Isaiah 53:6; Galatians 3:13; 1 Peter 2:24).

“For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ” (John 1:17).

I was (am) of the belief that Adam (Eve) was the only one with the option of free will. I was told recently that once a person comes to faith they now have free will. Is that true?

Ever since the fall into sin in Eden, the free will that people have is limited to making decisions about their earthly lives. So, people choose to marry or remain single, enter into this or that vocation, live in a certain area, etc. Of course, when it comes to making decisions like those, people may not always be able to follow through on what they would like to see happen in their lives.

After the fall into sin, people by nature can choose only evil in the spiritual realm. “The sinful mind is hostile to God. It does not submit to God’s law, nor can it do so” (Romans 8:7). The inclination of the heart is only evil by nature (Genesis 6:5; 8:21). This certainly means that no one can choose to believe in God. Romans 8:7 explains that people do not want anything to do with God in the first place. Then, when we add passages like 1 Corinthians 2:14, Ephesians 2:1 and Colossians 2:13, we understand that even if we wanted to choose to believe in Jesus we could not do that because we were spiritually blind and dead by nature. All we could do was sin and reject God.

Thanks be to God that he sent his Holy Spirit into our hearts to join us to Jesus so we could personally enjoy the forgiveness of sins he won for all people. As Christians we now have a new self that desires to live life God’s way (Ephesians 4:24). As a child of God, my will is much different than before my conversion. Now my new self wants to use the means of grace to strengthen my faith; now I want to follow God’s law as a tangible way of showing my thankfulness to him for my salvation in Jesus his Son. However, even when I, as a child of God, want to do those things in life that are good and godly, I recognize that it is God working in me: “It is God who works in you to will and to act in order to fulfill his good purpose” (Philippians 2:13).

Do we ever anoint with oil a person who is sick or use anointing with oil at any other time? If so what kind of oil? I am thinking of verses like James 5:13-15, Mark 6:13.

We have no command from the Lord to anoint individuals today with oil. In biblical accounts, anointing people with oil was done for ceremonial or sacred purposes (anointing prophets, priests and kings into offices), and for soothing or medicinal purposes (Ecclesiastes 9:8; Luke 10:34).

The original Greek of the New Testament has two words that mean “anoint.” One described the ceremonial application, another spoke of a medicinal usage. The passages that you cited contain the verbs that speak of a medicinal usage.

My question deals with the consumption of alcohol. I believe drinking is ok if done responsibly, but my friend believes any alcohol consumption is a sin. The friend believes that the word "wine" in the Bible has different meanings such as to be happy or joyful. The friend always uses the example that God would never say a little viewing of pornography is fine, just don't overdo it. He takes the case that the over- consumption of alcohol can lead to sinful acts. He also believes that Jesus wouldn't had wine at the Lord's Supper only juice. How do you address this train of thought?

I would encourage your friend to focus on clear passages of Scripture. The Bible does not condemn the use of alcohol (Psalm 104:14-15; 1 Timothy 5:23). It condemns the abuse of alcohol (Romans 13:13; 1 Corinthians 6:10; Ephesians 5:18). If wine itself were sinful, Jesus would certainly not have miraculously changed water into wine at the wedding at Cana (John 2:1-11). Under the Old Testament ceremonial laws, God even commanded the use of wine with offerings (Exodus 29:40; Number 28:7).  Think of the implications of that.

In biblical days in Palestine, people regularly mixed wine with water to purify the water. We know from history that wine was part of the celebration of the Passover meal. Since the institution of the Lord’s Supper took place during the celebration of the Passover meal, the “fruit of the vine” (Matthew 26:29) was a part of it. Any grapes that had been harvested in the previous fall and pressed into juice would most likely have been going through the fermentation process in the following spring (when Jesus instituted the Lord’s Supper).

What your friend says about pornography is true: God does not approve of that in large or small amounts. Equating the moderate consumption of alcohol to pornography is where your friend’s argument collapses. Nowhere does the Bible say that any alcohol consumption is a sin. Christians are free not to consume alcohol or to consume it in moderation. They are not free to bind the consciences of others with their opinions.

Ref. Conquerors through Christ website serves those affected by porn use. You may subscribe to the CtC e-Newsletter and visit  CtC on Facebook.

I have often wondered if our position that the pope is the Antichrist (which I believe of course) is subject to a fuller expression close to the end of time. What do you make of the claims that there will be a one world government, one world religion and coming "Great Deception" that could facilitate this one world religion? I accept the WELS position of amillennialism, but I do see trends in the world that are moving toward globalism, the ecumenicalism that is so rampant, and the talk I hear in the media and conspiracy groups who believe that people could eventually be implanted with micro-chips in the hand and forehead. From a confessional Lutheran perspective, how should I view these events in our world? Will the work of the Antichrist intensify at the end, and what is "Satan's Little Season" and what do we make of this talk of one world government, religion etc? Is that taught in the Book of Revelation? Thank you.

Scripture speaks of “antichrists” (1 John 2:18) and a great Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2). The Antichrist whom Paul describes is not a world ruler but someone who “sets himself up in God’s temple” (2 Thessalonians 2:4); he is someone in the church.

When it comes to conditions in the world, as we live in the “last days” (Hebrews 1:2), Scripture paints a picture of “terrible times” (2 Timothy 3:1-9). Jesus spoke of calamities that would take place (Matthew 24:4-13). He even asked the haunting question, “When the Son of Man comes, will he find faith on the earth?” (Luke 18:8)

Revelation 20:7-10 describes Satan’s final, futile effort to overthrow Jesus Christ and his church. In a time period shortly before the last day, God will allow Satan to have more freedom and flexibility to carry out his dastardly work. Satan will enlist the help of his followers in church and government as he mounts a final assault that will end disastrously for him and his followers.

Are we living in that time period described in Revelation 20? God knows, but we do not know. In classes, I often answer that question with other questions: “As bad as it is right now, could things get worse? Could things get worse for Christians? Could things get worse for Christians in the United States?” The answers are usually “yes.” Finally, we don’t know where we are on God’s timeline to Judgment Day.

What we do know is that Jesus has defeated all our spiritual enemies—sin, Satan, hell and death—and through faith in him we are victorious over all those enemies.

What is WELS' take on the Aramaic English New Testament?

There is no official position to which I can point you. All I can do is point out personal observations. The translation in question is based on two faulty premises: that Jesus spoke only Aramaic during his earthly life and ministry, and that ancient Aramaic-based biblical manuscripts are the original texts of the New Testament.

In the first century A.D., it was common for Jews to speak Greek in public and Aramaic in their homes and in worship settings. It would not have been unusual for Jesus to follow that pattern. Additionally, Aramaic biblical manuscripts are translations of the original Greek New Testament manuscripts and are of a later date than the Greek manuscripts.

Is it OK to write in your Bible?

There is nothing wrong with that. In fact, annotating our Bibles can be helpful. Allow me to pass along these ideas from a former professor of mine:

“And as you read the Scriptures, keep a pen or pencil in your hand. For some reason or other, some people have a distaste for marking up their Bibles, but there is no reason why we ought not to underline the passages which have special meaning for us. Underlining them will help to fix them in our memory; it will enable us to find these passages with greater ease when we want to use them again, and they will be the passages that we remember and will want to find often, and sometimes in days of great trial and distress we may find great comfort just in reviewing some of these passages.

“Besides underlining such passages, we may want to underline significant words and phrases which will help us to recall the content of a certain chapter, or which mark the theme of the book, or which mark certain divisions of the book. For example, in one of my Bibles all the words which speak of the joy of the apostle and the people to whom he wrote are underlined in the epistle to the Philippians. In the epistles of John, the word ‘love’ is underlined. In the book of Job, the various speeches are indicated by underling the names of the speakers as they occur. You will be surprised how your familiarity with Scripture will grow as you make use of these devices.

“There are also other ways of using a pen while we read. One of the Bibles that I use has an ‘M’ in the margin wherever a miracle is found, a ‘P’ next to every general prophecy, a cross next to every Messianic prophecy, and ‘FP’ wherever the fulfillment of a prophecy is referred to.”

If you liked these ideas and want more, this link will take you to a paper that is available from the Wisconsin Lutheran Seminary Essay File:  “How to Study Your Bible.”

WELS NLT vs. NIV Bible translation?

I am not entirely sure what specific information you are seeking. The strengths and weaknesses of the NIV (1984 and 2011) have been well documented on this website.

The New Living Translation is a revision of the Living Bible. It is like numerous other translations in that it does not always translate passages accurately. That is because the translators either imposed their views into specific verses or they paraphrased the original text.

If you are interested in reading about other Bible translations, this link will take you to information provided by the WELS Translation Evaluation Committee.

I am researching the "Water of Lustration" or Water of Purification" and the Jewish baptism of Proselytes/Gentile converts and the Mikve, Tumah and Taharah. I have come here to the WELS so I don't have to get all of my information from the Internet, yet when I put in any of these terms I come up with nothing. This is very frustrating! I would like to know where in the Old Testament it instructs converts to the Jewish religion to be not only circumcised but to have to wash themselves. Also, the specifications to the Mikveh and references to it. Also, the Tumah and Taharah, are they words in the OT?

Your search has been frustrating because there is no instruction in the Old Testament for “converts to the Jewish religion to be not only circumcised but to have to wash themselves.” A ceremonial washing for Gentile converts originated with Jewish tradition and custom. The origin of that ceremonial washing is uncertain. Different rabbinic schools offered their own views on the practice.

Tumah (“unclean”) and Taharah (“clean, pure”) are Hebrew words used in the Old Testament.

I am wondering if you would explain the meaning of 2 Corinthians 5:6-8. I am very confused by it.

“Therefore we are always confident and know that as long as we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord. For we live by faith, not by sight. We are confident, I say, and would prefer to be away from the body and at home with the Lord” (2 Corinthians 5:6-8).

The apostle Paul’s words tell us that there is something unique about people: they have bodies and souls. We see that when Paul speaks about wanting “to be away from the body and at home with the Lord.” But there is more to Paul’s words than that. In the apostle’s words we also see his longing for heaven.

When death takes place, the body and soul separate. The body remains on earth and, for the Christian, the soul goes to God’s presence in heaven. When Paul wrote that he longed “to be away from the body and at home with the Lord,” he meant that he looked forward to the time when the Lord would call him home. But, until that time, he was going to use his life to serve the Lord by serving others.

Paul speaks for us, doesn’t he? We sing in one of our hymns: “I’m but a stranger here; Heav’n is my home” (Christian Worship 417:1). We too recognize that, as Christians, our real home is with God. Death for the Christian, then, is a homecoming; it’s the arrival of the Christian’s soul in God’s presence in heaven.

On the last day God will reunite bodies and souls, glorify the bodies of Christians, and we will be with the Lord forever.  Praise God for that.

Why has WELS decided to remove Yahweh's name and replace it with Lord?

I do not know what kind of “decision” of WELS you are referencing. The Jews, going back to at least the third century B.C., substituted “Adonai” (“LORD”) for Yahweh. Respect for God led the Jews not to pronounce “Yahweh” or “Yahveh.” Because of that, we do not know with certainty what vowels were tied to the four consonants of that name. Many Bible translations have continued that practice of substituting LORD for Yahweh/Yahveh.

I have heard stories of people in the WELS schools being instructed to never read the book of James or the book of Revelation. Does the WELS hold this position towards these books?

In my service at Martin Luther College, I teach the books of James and Revelation each semester. I am not alone in teaching and preaching from these books, and encouraging fellow Christians to read James and Revelation. The pastors, teachers, staff ministers and professors of our church body encourage God’s people to read all of Scripture, including James and Revelation.

The stories you have heard are false. As you have opportunity, please set the record straight with those who have misled you. I am glad you asked.

Last night, I was talking to an LCMS pastor. I learned that he believes we can't insist on a 6-day, 24-hour creation, because that would require us to hold that the bread and wine used in Communion are literally Jesus' body and blood. What's your take? Thank you.

The language of Scripture is that the days of creation were days as we know them—with “evening” and “morning” (Genesis 1-2; Exodus 20:11). There is nothing in Scripture to suggest any meaning other than 24-hour days.

In the Lord’s Supper, Jesus gives us his very body and blood in, with and under the bread and wine for the forgiveness of sins (Matthew 26:26-28; 1 Corinthians 10:16; 11:27). The bread and wine do not merely represent Jesus’ body and blood. “Is” (Matthew 26:26-28) means “is.”

How many people in the WELS read the King James Version of the Bible?

I would not be able to provide a number for you. If people are using the King James Version, hopefully they are able to understand the message that is conveyed in language unlike our everyday communication today. More contemporary translations make it easier to understand the content.

I have been reading through the Psalms and noticed that in the NIV2011, the word Selah is removed from the text and is now just a footnote. The word Selah was part of the text in the NIV1984 and many other Bible translations and is part of the Hebrew text. I have always been taught that God's word should never be changed. Why is the word Selah removed in the NIV2011?

Be assured that no one is changing God’s word. The differences in the translations reflect the challenge translators have in rendering that Hebrew term in English. It is thought that Selah refers to a musical instruction for the singing of the psalm, but translators are not entirely sure what that instruction was. For that reason, Bible translations can put the word in the verses or list it as a “footnote.”

Is the Shroud of Turin authentic? It seems very contested and disputed.

It looks to be a cloth from the Middle Ages. Even if it were from a much earlier age, one wonders how it could possibly be tied to one person: Jesus of Nazareth.

Thankfully, we do not need artifacts like this to authenticate the person and ministry of Jesus Christ. Scripture is sufficient. Scripture reveals Jesus as our perfect and complete Savior (John 20:31).

Unicorns are clearly mentioned in the KJV 9 times. Why have newer versions changed it to wild ox or buffalo?

The King James Version continued the thought from the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Old Testament, that animals mentioned in places like Numbers 23:22, Deuteronomy 33:17 and Job 39:9 were unicorns.

Newer Bible translations render the Hebrew word as a “wild ox” or buffalo-like animal because that is keeping with the context of the passages that describe a strong and ferocious animal.

Jesus says, "Surely I am with you always to the very end of the age" (Matthew 28). He also says, "Where two or three come together, there I am with them" (Matthew 18). What's the difference between these? Is the first talking about our individual relationship with Christ, and the second talking about Christ's relationship with the church? I know as omnipresent true God, Christ is always with me, even when I am not with another person. Can you please clarify the difference? Thanks.

It looks like you are heading in the right direction when it comes to providing a helpful understanding of these two promises of our Lord.

In Matthew 28, Jesus commissioned his church to teach God’s word and baptize people throughout the world. To comfort and strengthen his followers for this mission, Jesus promised to be with them always.

In Matthew 18, we see what the Christian church is all about. The Christian church consists of people, even as few as two or three, who are assembled in the Lord’s name. While God’s omnipresence penetrates every part of his creation, the Lord promises his special, gracious presence to Christians who gather in his name. Jesus’ promise in Matthew 18 is in the context of believers uniting together in prayer.

Put together, these passages remind you and me that we are not alone in this world. God is with us, and he has promised never to leave us or forsake us (Hebrews 13:5).

In Leviticus God seems to be condoning slavery. Isn't slavery sinful?

Previous questions on this topic received a response like this: “Slavery was permitted in the Old Testament, but was carefully regulated (Leviticus 25:39-53, Exodus 21:2-11). Slaves were protected and had to be set free if injured (Exodus 21:26-27). Every fiftieth year (the year of Jubilee) Israelite slaves were to be set free (Leviticus 25:39-41). Stealing or kidnapping a person to enslave him or her was punishable by death (Deuteronomy 24:7, Exodus 21:16).

“The New Testament also condemns kidnappers or slave traders (1 Timothy 1:10). Nevertheless the New Testament instructs slaves to submit to their masters, even the masters who were harsh (1 Peter 2:18ff, Ephesians 6:5-8). The Apostles did not attempt to overturn the structures of society by encouraging disobedience or rebellion. Paul returned the slave Onesimus to his Christian master Philemon. Onesimus had run away and subsequently become a Christian. Paul did not command Philemon to free him, but encouraged him to receive Onesimus as a brother (Philemon 8-21).

“Christianity transcends social distinctions (Galatians 3:28). Free men are slaves to Christ and slaves are free in Christ– a person’s social position means nothing before God (1 Corinthians 7:20-24). Yet slaves were encouraged to gain their freedom if possible (1 Corinthians 7:21). Although the Bible never encourages the overthrow of social or political structures through disobedience or rebellion, wherever the gospel has taken firm root slavery has disappeared. When hearts are changed by the gospel message of forgiveness of sins and salvation in Christ, people put into practice Jesus’ words, ‘In everything, do to others you would have them do to you’ (Matthew 7:12).”

History tells us that there were different ways in which people became slaves. Some were prisoners of war. Others suffered economic losses and willingly placed themselves into the service of others in exchange for the basic necessities of life. Still others, sadly, were bought and sold as property. While people might have entered slavery in different ways, the Bible’s message to everyone involved in it was to exercise Christian love.

A recent article in Forward in Christ addressed the subject of slavery. This link will take you to it.

What does Proverbs 3:5 mean? Thanking you in advance.

“Trust in the LORD with all your heart and lean not on your own understanding” (Proverbs 3:5). The verse instructs us to put all our trust in the Lord and not our own knowledge. The verse tells us not to be reliant on our strength and knowledge, but to trust in the Lord.

Those instructions are true when it comes to the biggest issue of life: salvation. Those instructions are true when it comes to the everyday mysteries and challenges of life. We may not be able to figure out why things are or aren’t happening in life, but Christian faith says, “My God knows what is going on, he is in control and I trust him.”

Proverbs 3:5 directs us to look less at ourselves and more to God—and to trust him completely.

Does man's everlasting soul begin at conception?

Yes. The Bible does not teach a pre-existence of souls. The Bible describes human beings as consisting of both bodies and souls (Ecclesiastes 12:7; Matthew 10:28; Philippians 1:21-26). We find such life in the womb before birth (Psalm 139:13-18).

Can you please explain Sheol? In a recent Bible study, this subject came up and I knew nothing about it (in spite of my elementary thru college WELS education). Why is this not spoken of more? Also, how does this differ from our thoughts that a believer dies and goes home to heaven?

The Hebrew word sheol can mean “the grave,” “the realm of the dead,” or “hell.” The context will determine the meaning.

One of the ways Bible writers used sheol is to speak of believers and unbelievers dying, with their bodies then buried in graves. In that sense and context, believers—like all people—go to sheol. On the other hand, Bible writers used sheol to speak of unbelievers going to hell. Context, again, determines the specific meaning of the word sheol.

The Bible has different words to speak of believers “dying and going home to heaven.”

Your question is a reminder that death is a common experience for people, but people’s souls go to heaven or hell based on faith in Jesus or unbelief (Mark 16:16).

Murdoch's Bible NIV 2011 - what do you think of his editors going with the abortion translation on Numbers 5: 21- 25? Neither the Kretzmann commentary or Pastor Beck translated it that way. It most certainly does open the door to have the right to an abortion if there was adultery. There is so much more wrong with that translation that has been pointed out to pastors not just laymen, yet we are using it. Why?

Numbers 5:21-25 does not in any way sanction abortion. The verses speak of a practice the Israelites could have used in the case of suspected unfaithfulness in marriage. The practice put the determination of guilt or innocence in the hands of the Lord. If the verdict was “guilty,” then there were physical consequences for the woman. Translators have rendered the Hebrew for those consequences in different ways. In the case of the NIV, the content of the footnotes of Numbers 5:22-23 (NIV84) became the text for Numbers 5:22-23 in NIV2011. The meaning appears to be that the consequences of unfaithfulness affected the part of the body involved in both adultery and fertility.

In no way does that section of the Bible authorize or permit abortion. The verses speak of a practice for Old Testament Israel that addressed suspected unfaithfulness. If there were adverse physical consequences for the woman, it was the result of God rendering a “guilty” verdict in the matter.

When it comes to the use of Bible translations, that is a congregational matter. The recent discussions in our church body regarding translations have been in the context of publishing materials.

I heard a nondenominational/Baptist pastor say that the ascended Lord's body is only present in heaven at God's right hand, and thus, cannot be present in the Lord's Supper. On the contrary, I believe our WELS teaching on the true body of Christ present in Holy Communion, and the obviously miraculous way that his true body can be present at multiple places in the world at the same time. Can you explain what the Bible says about the corporeal body of Christ in this post-ascension time of history? And how does the truth of God's omnipresence relate to the corporeal body of Christ.

Traditional Reformed theology holds the erroneous view that Jesus’ human body can occupy only one space at a time. With that wrong idea in mind, Reformed theology envisions Jesus’ body—after his ascension—only in heaven, and the earthly elements in the Lord’s Supper merely symbolize his body.

When Jesus ascended into heaven, he withdrew his visible presence from his followers on earth. He did not abandon them. He promises: “For where two or three gather in my name, there am I with them” (Matthew 18:20). The God-Man, Jesus, with his human nature and body as well as according to his deity, is present when his followers gather in his name. Shortly before his ascension, Jesus gave a similar promise of his presence in the lives of his followers: “And surely I am with you always, to the very end of the age” (Matthew 28:20). Jesus’ divine nature shares with his human nature characteristics or attributes so that his body is also capable of being present anywhere and everywhere he wills to be (omnipresence). His body is truly present in the Lord’s Supper (Matthew 26:26-28).

While these truths of Scripture may go beyond our understanding, Spirit-worked faith believes them. Like you, I do not seek to change Scripture to make it more understandable to my mind.

What's the difference between Islam jihad of wiping out the infidels, and the Old Testament Israelite people going through Canaan and wiping out the peoples there? (e.g., Deuteronomy 7)

The God of Islam does not exist. Any warfare in Allah’s name is illegitimate and idolatrous.

On the other hand, the God of the Bible, the Triune God, is God alone (Isaiah 45:5). As the Creator of all things, only God or his representatives in government can end life (Genesis 9:5-6; Deuteronomy 32:39; Psalm 90:3; Romans 13:4). As the Creator and owner of all things (Psalm 24:1), God instructed his people to take control of the land of Canaan. Past answers to similar questions have contained thoughts like these:

“The gross idolatries and sexual depravities of the Canaanites were longstanding, persistent, and posed a horrible influence on their neighbors, and spread a deadly contagion among the covenant nation of God. They were impenitent peoples who had hardened their hearts against revealed truth and were dangerous to the spiritual lives of God’s people. They had received ample information that the Promised Land had been promised to the descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; had been given opportunity to vacate the territory; and knew very well that God meant business in leading the Israelites into Canaan after the Exodus from Egypt and the crossing of the Red Sea. God’s clear purpose in driving out or exterminating impenitent idolaters was to serve the preservation and spread of the promises of a Savior that God entrusted to the Israelites. God was constructing a hedge around his people to allow them to keep the messianic promises and family line intact so it could ultimately be shared with the world.”

There is no comparison between the actions of a false religion’s adherents and the actions of the only true God.

I was speaking with a friend the other day who mentioned that not all "Christian" denominations believe that Christ not only died the worst earthly death, but also suffered in hell for the sins of all people for all eternity. He also mentioned that this was reflected in the Apostles' Creed, and that it was changed years ago. Being a member of the WELS, I am familiar and fully agree with the statement "He descended into hell." However, some denominations changed it to "He descended to the dead." My questions involve a couple concerns: 1) When was this change made and why? 2) Does this change reflect that some Christians don't believe Jesus fully suffered in hell? Thank you.

For years, there have been misunderstandings and false teachings regarding Jesus’ descent into hell. Roman Catholic Church theology maintains that Jesus descended to a limbus patrum, a limbo of the fathers, to free Old Testament believers and take them to heaven. Traditional Reformed theology teaches that Jesus’ descent into hell was part of his suffering for sin.

Some churches and people also erroneously believe that Jesus’ descent was to the realm of the dead where all people go upon life’s end: a Sheol or Hades—a place apart from this world that does not take into account their judgment to heaven or hell. “He descended to the dead” reflects that kind of thinking.

The English Language Liturgical Consultation is an international group that seeks to gather information and consensus on liturgical forms. Their mission is then to produce and promote common texts. Their version of the Apostles’ Creed states that Jesus “descended to the dead.” The Consultation’s influence is evident when we consider that churches like the Reformed Church in America and the Evangelical Lutheran Church in America make use of their version of the Apostles’ Creed.

Jesus’ suffering for sin came to an end on the cross. After Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in Joseph’s tomb on Easter Sunday morning, and before the risen Lord appeared to his followers on earth, Jesus descended into hell to proclaim his victory over Satan (1 Peter 3:18-20). Jesus’ descent was a victory march (Colossians 2:15), the first step in his state of exaltation.

Why do Matthew and Luke show different genealogies for Jesus?

A common explanation of the genealogies is that Matthew provides the legal descent through Joseph, Jesus’ legal father, and Luke provides Jesus’ physical descent through Mary. With Joseph as his legal father, Jesus was David’s legal descendant. Romans 1:3 attests to that. Luke traces Jesus’ family line through Mary, and the evangelist demonstrates that Jesus is connected to Adam and Eve (Genesis 3:15).

Jesus, the eternal Son of God, did not appear out of thin air when he entered this world to fulfill the promises of the Savior. No, there was a lineage and ancestry that could be traced. As you noted, Scripture even provides two genealogies.

Why did the Israelites do little to spread God's Word (at that time, the promise of the Savior) to other nations?

I am not sure what led you to that conclusion, but it is not an accurate one. Certainly, the ceremonial laws that God gave to the people of Israel were designed to keep them separate from the heathen nations around them, but God’s will was that his people share the news of a promised Messiah with others. And they did.

I can recommend to you two resources that elaborate more on that truth. This first link will take you to a “Light for our Path” column that addressed a question that was similar to yours: “Were the Jews to spread the message about the promised Savior even to Gentiles, as we do mission work today?”

This second link will give you access to a short paper: “The Mission Mindset of God’s Old Testament People.”

God had promised Abraham: “All peoples on earth will be blessed through you” (Genesis 12:3). The people of the world would be blessed through the Savior who would come through Abraham’s lineage. The people of the world needed to hear of that promised Savior, the Messiah. God’s Old Testament people of Israel spread the word.

During a Bible study on Ephesians, a fellow church member told me that some people are predestined to hell before they are born. How can this be?

It can’t be. Scripture speaks of only an election of grace, an election to salvation.

When it comes to people forfeiting the salvation which Jesus Christ won, the Bible makes it clear that people are to blame (Hosea 13:9; Matthew 23:37). God wants all to be saved (1 Timothy 2:4). He wants all to come to repentance (2 Peter 3:9).  God does not take pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11).

You can help your fellow church member by passing along this biblical information to him or her.

I am currently talking to someone about what Lutherans believe. I got to a point to where he eventually agreed with me on certain things (he is a member of the Churches of Christ denomination). He said one thing he just can't seem to agree with is original sin or that a baby is sinful. How can I prove original sin to him with biblical support? I showed him Psalm 51:5 and he said that this doesn't apply to us. He said David was just explaining how sinful he was and how bad he felt about his sin, and that he was using this as an exaggeration. Do you have any advice on how I can correctly interpret this verse for him?

We do find hyperbole in the Bible, but the context makes it very clear that we are dealing with that figure of speech. For example, the Pharisees were upset about all the accolades Jesus received from his Palm Sunday entrance in Jerusalem and his earlier miracle of raising Lazarus from the dead by saying about him, “See, this is getting us nowhere. Look how the whole world has gone after him!” (John 12:19) Did every person in the world become a follower of Jesus of Nazareth? Not by any stretch of the imagination. The people who made that statement about Jesus were still clearly opposed to him. It is clear from the context that we are dealing with hyperbole.

There is nothing in the context of Psalm 51 to suggest that King David was using hyperbolic language. In the preceding verses David recognized and confessed his “iniquity,” “sin” and “transgression.” David knew how thoroughly sin had stained his life. In verse five David explains how sin and a sinful condition were not recent additions to his life. No, sin became part of his life when his life began; he inherited a sinful nature at conception.

David’s confession of his natural sinful condition is not the only place in the Bible where we find the doctrine of original sin. Other passages that could be helpful for you in your conversations are: Genesis 5:3; 8:21; John 3:6; Romans 3:23; 5:12; 7:18; 8:7; and, Ephesians 2:1-3.

God bless your conversations!

I would really like a journaling Bible of some sort where I can write notes as I read. However, the only journaling Bibles I can find are NIV or KJV. Has Northwestern Publishing House developed/printed a translation that follows WELS beliefs and what the Bible says without taking out or changing things? If not, do you have a suggestion of one that is available? Thanks in advance for your help.

In addition to what you listed, a journaling Bible with the text of the English Standard Version is also available from Northwestern Publishing House (NPH).

Although it is not a journaling Bible, NPH also offers the Evangelical Heritage Version: New Testament and Psalms. It is the work of pastors and professors from WELS and the Evangelical Lutheran Synod (ELS). Rather than seeing it as a “translation that follows WELS beliefs,” it is a translation that seeks to translate the original languages of the Bible into English faithfully and accurately.

Where in the Bible do I find that we rise to the East at the resurrection?

There is no passage in the Bible that states that, but over the years Christians have used some Bible passages as reason for burying the dead with an eastward orientation: facing the east.

Matthew 24:27 is one of those passages. Jesus said about himself: “For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.” The thrust of Jesus’ words is that his visible return on the last day will be evident to all at once—like a flash of lightning that instantly illumines the sky.

Other Bible passages with an eastward orientation that people have used for burial practices and the floor plans of churches (to face east when worshiping) are Genesis 2:8; Ezekiel 43:1-2; Isaiah 63:1; and, Zechariah 14:4.

It finally makes no difference in which direction a body is buried in a cemetery or how ashes from a cremation are scattered. “…A time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his [the Son of Man’s] voice and come out…” (John 5:28-29). For Christians, the last day will be a glorious day. We have Jesus’ own word on that: “For my Father’s will is that everyone who looks to the Son and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise them up at the last day” (John 6:40). Because Jesus lives, we too will live forevermore!

In his state of humiliation, would Jesus have been able to sin when he was tempted?

I can point you to an article that appeared in the Wisconsin Lutheran Quarterly that succinctly addressed your question. The article is worth a read. Below are some thoughts from the conclusion of the article:

“On the basis of a well-meant desire to affirm the authenticity of Christ’s temptations some Christians have asserted that it was theoretically possible for Christ to have sinned. When the question is raised how it would have been possible for Christ to have sinned if he was truly God, the answer is usually that Jesus could have sinned only in his human nature, not in his divine nature. To claim that Jesus or his human nature could have sinned without God sinning requires that Jesus’ humanity had an existence separate from God. Jesus, then, is not truly God. He is just a man inhabited or possessed by God in a special way, much like a person possessed by the devil. When we limit Christ’s actions to one of his natures rather than his person, we destroy the unity of his person and end up with a Nestorian Christ, one whose two natures are just glued together like boards and which can be pulled apart. If we accept this principle, then it follows that his death was simply the death of his human nature, not the death of God’s Son, that is, the death of God. Jesus certainly could not have been tempted if he had no human nature, just as he could not die without a human nature. But both of these were acts of the person, just as all his acts for our salvation were.

“For Jesus to sin would have meant either that God sinned or that the personal union was broken. Biblical Christology allows neither of these possibilities.”

Jesus was “tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin” (Hebrews 4:15). Jesus was perfect in our place. He did what we cannot do: he rejected temptation. Because we fail to reject temptation and avoid sin, Jesus suffered the punishment we deserved.

Jesus lived up to his name, which means “Savior,” by living a holy life in our place and suffering the punishment our sins deserved. Jesus’ active obedience and passive obedience were both necessary for our salvation.

This link will take you to the article I cited.

The Bible says that Jesus was three days in the tomb. He died approximately at 3:00 PM on Friday and rose sometime in the morning on Sunday. 3:00 PM Friday -> Saturday -> Sunday AM is less than 2 days. Is this a situation where we need to look at the times? Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are three different days. But the total time is less than two days.

Allow me to pass along the explanation I included in When Christ Walked Among Us.

“Crucified on Friday, raised to life on Sunday. Three days or two? The answer depends on one’s culture and that culture’s methods for tracking time. In the Jewish way of reckoning time, it was three days. That is because of the way in which Jews determined the beginning and ending point of a day and their understanding that any part of a day equaled an entire day. Because the Genesis creation account describes the days consisting of evening and morning, the Jews understood that a day began with the evening. As sunset on Friday marked the beginning of Saturday and the Jews were rushing to remove the bodies from the crosses before twilight, that would mean Jesus’ body was in the grave for a very short time on Friday. One day. His body was in Joseph’s tomb all of Saturday. Two days. Sunset on Saturday denoted the commencement of Sunday. Jesus’ body was in the tomb at that point. Three days. Part of one day, an entire second day and a part of the third day equaled three days according to Jewish thinking. ‘On the third day he rose again according to the Scriptures’” (p. 208).

My wife comes from a charismatic background. Nothing unusual came out on the subject while dating, but now I am getting some "surprises." She is starting to become negative on our liturgy and wants to see more "gifts of the Holy Spirit" again in church service, like tongue speaking, prophetic prayer and stuff like that. When I say I want to concentrate on what Jesus did for me, not gifts God has not promised to us, she gets pretty defensive. She has also claimed to have miraculously healed people through prayer on mission trips and that she has driven out demons on those same trips, so those gifts are still available to any who asks for them. Suffice it to say, this has become kind of an issue. Any advice on how to handle such claims? I am under the impression that I can't rule out her claims on healing and casting out demons because God could still actively do that stuff, if he so desired, but it is a bit of tricky subject.

The best course of action, of course, is for you and your wife to examine what the Bible does and does not say about spiritual gifts. If you have not studied and discussed together these sections of Scripture—Romans 12:1-8; 1 Corinthians 12; Ephesians 4:11-13; 1 Peter 4:10-11—it would be good for both of you to do that.

When it comes to gifts of the Holy Spirit in biblical days and today, our church body makes these points in This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body. “The Holy Spirit also equips the church with all the spiritual gifts it needs for its well-being (1 Corinthians 12:4-11). During the beginning of the New Testament era, special charismatic gifts were given to the church, such as signs, miracles, and speaking in tongues. These gifts were connected with the ministry of the apostles (2 Corinthians 12:12). There is no evidence in Scripture that we today should expect the continuation of such charismatic gifts.”

God can do anything. As you noted, if God chooses to give a person special gifts, he can do so. The key statement in the section I passed along is the last sentence: “There is no evidence in Scripture that we today should expect the continuation of such charismatic gifts.”

Our focus is best directed on the object of our faith, Jesus Christ. The Holy Spirit’s greatest gift, given to all Christians, is the gift of saving faith (1 Corinthians 12:3; Ephesians 2:8; 4:5).

I'm wondering what God thinks about abortion. Could you tell us what the 2011NIV says about that in Numbers 5: 21-31, as it's a highly recommended Bible and supported and sold by Northwestern Publishing House?

Numbers 5:21-25 does not in any way sanction abortion. The verses speak of a practice the Israelites could have used in the case of suspected unfaithfulness in marriage. The practice put the determination of guilt or innocence in the hands of the Lord. If the verdict was “guilty,” then there were physical consequences for the woman. Translators have rendered the Hebrew for those consequences in different ways. In the case of the NIV, the content of the footnotes of Numbers 5:22-23 (NIV84) became the text for Numbers 5:22-23 in NIV2011. The meaning appears to be that the consequences of unfaithfulness affected the part of the body involved in both adultery and fertility.

In no way does that section of the Bible authorize or permit abortion. The verses speak of a practice for Old Testament Israel that addressed suspected unfaithfulness. If there were adverse physical consequences for the woman, it was the result of God rendering a “guilty” verdict in the matter.

When Abraham was about to kill Isaac as a sacrifice, God provided a ram to be sacrificed in place of Isaac. I have heard in more than one sermon that the ram was a type of Christ. Is this correct, or would this be allegory?

We often define a “type of Christ” as someone or something that points ahead to Jesus Christ and his redeeming work. With a “type,” the Old Testament in some way will prefigure the person and work of Christ, and the New Testament will provide enough information to see how that type finds its fulfillment in Jesus Christ.

In the biblical account you referenced (Genesis 22), a ram became the sacrifice offered to God instead of Isaac. The prophet Isaiah described the Messiah’s approach to his suffering for our sins this way: “He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; he was led like a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before its shearers is silent, so he did not open his mouth” (Isaiah 53:7).

When Jesus embarked on his public ministry, John the Baptist said of him, “Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!” (John 1:29)

The substitionary sacrifice in Genesis 22 points us ahead to Jesus’ substitionary sacrifice for the sins of the world (1 John 2:2).

The sermons you heard contained accurate biblical interpretation. An allegorical approach to that account from Genesis 22 would turn objects like the fire and the knife into other items.

"By this shall all people know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another." (John 13:35) Is St. John referring only to believers with the command here and in 1 John? Is there Scripture to support this? Or what Scriptures support that love by Christians is to extend to every human being?

The love of Christians for one another is important, but Christians are not to limit their love to one another.

“What Scriptures support that?’ The second table of the law instructs us to “love your neighbor as yourself” (Mark 12:31). Jesus’ Parable of the Good Samaritan (Luke 10:25-37) makes clear that our neighbor is our fellow human being. Galatians 6:10 instructs us: “Therefore, as we have opportunity, let us do good to all people, especially to those who belong to the family of believers.” Jesus tells Christians to “love your enemies” (Luke 5:44). The Great Commission (Matthew 28:18-20) is based on love for all people: God loves all people, and he wants us to show love to all people by sharing the gospel with them.

One day during his earthly ministry Jesus spoke of the limited love of the Pharisees (Luke 14:12-14). In the name of religion (their own religion), those people restricted their love to one another. Jesus instructed them to “branch out” with their acts of love. Scripture has that same instruction and encouragement for children of God.

As Christians, we are to love all people. We keep that in perspective with this truth of Scripture: “We love because he first loved us” (1 John 4:19).

What is prophecy according to I Corinthians 12-14?

“Prophecy” can have a wider and narrower definition. The narrower definition describes the role of Old Testament prophets: men who received messages from God, sometimes concerning the revelation of future events, and then relayed them to people. The wider definition speaks of followers of God in general communicating the messages of God’s law and gospel to others. It is that wider definition of prophecy that we see in 1 Corinthians 12-14.

In 1 Corinthians 12-14 the apostle Paul contrasts prophecy with speaking in tongues/speaking in other languages. Because the Corinthian Christians placed such a high value on speaking in tongues/speaking in other languages, the apostle Paul demonstrated the greater benefit of communicating the messages of God’s word in a language that people can understand (1 Corinthians 14:3, 24-25).

Is Jerusalem the eternal capital of Israel, either as a nation or for the Jewish people, according to the Bible?

No. The Bible does not address the modern nation of Israel. The Bible makes it clear that those who have the faith of Abraham—trusting in the promised Messiah, Jesus Christ—are the Israel of God (Galatians 6:16; Romans 9:8). When the Bible speaks of a “new Jerusalem” (Revelation 21:2), it does so in symbolic terms as the eternal home of God’s people. Only followers of Jesus Christ will inhabit the “new Jerusalem” (John 3:36, 14:6; Acts 4:12).

Why did Jesus change Simon’s name to Peter? I know Peter’s name in Greek means rock or stone, so does that mean there is some connection with Peter and the Church in Matthew 16:18 when Jesus says that on this rock I will build my church?

Jesus gave Simon an additional name when they first met (John 1:42). The connection between Peter and Jesus’ church in Matthew 16:18 is that Jesus said he was going to build his church on the confession of faith that Peter made: that Jesus is “the Messiah, the Son of the living God.”

The Greek word for Peter is “petros.” The Greek word for the rock on which Jesus was going to build his church is “petra.” Jesus’ words make it clear that he was building his church on the confession that he is Savior—and not on the person who made such a confession.

Were Cain and Abel twins?

People have sometimes thought that the brothers were twins because the wording for Cain’s birth differs from the wording for Abel’s birth. In the case of Cain’s birth, the Bible states that “Eve became pregnant and gave birth to Cain” (Genesis 4:1). In the case of Abel’s birth, the Bible omits the phrase that Eve became pregnant and simply says: “Later she gave birth to his brother Abel” (Genesis 4:2). With that difference in mind, some have taken “Later” to mean minutes and not months or years.

That understanding is possible, but the wording does not limit the interpretation to that meaning. There are other instances in Scripture where the births of children are recorded without explicitly stating that their mothers became pregnant. Some examples are Genesis 4:20, 22, 25. With these thoughts in mind, the Bible does not provide a definitive answer.

I have a co-worker who said you don't have to go to a church service to believe in God. I replied that believing in God, you would want to gather together with like -minded believers to worship. What passages could I use to reinforce my position?

You could use sections of Scripture like Psalm 84, Psalm 122:1 and Hebrews 10:23-25 to demonstrate that it is God’s will that his children gather together in his house for worship.

We want to recognize that our sinful nature wants nothing to do with God or his word. Our sinful nature rebels at any opportunity to worship with fellow Christians or read the Bible on our own. On the other hand, our new self agrees with the psalmist: “I rejoiced with those who said to me, ‘Let us go to the house of the Lord’” (Psalm 122:1). In our daily walk of faith we strive to put down the sinful nature through repentance and to build up the new self through God’s word. Worshiping the Lord in church, receiving the Lord’s Supper, reading and studying God’s Word individually and with others will build up our new self and strengthen our desire to worship the Lord in church.  God bless your conversations with your co-worker.

What is the WELS stance on women's role in society, i.e., should women supervise men in the workplace and what is the stance on gambling, i.e., lottery tickets?

Your first question requires a much longer response than is appropriate for this forum, so let me steer you to a couple of resources that can offer a thorough response and detailed explanation. This link will take you to a free resource titled “The God-Given Roles of Man and Woman in the Christian’s Everyday Life.”

In addition, I can recommend a couple of resources from Northwestern Publishing House: Man and Woman in God’s World and A Bible Study on Man and Woman in God’s World.

There was a very recent question and answer on the subject of gambling. This link will review that information for you.

I stumbled across a discussion online where someone claimed that the Septuagint and Dead Sea Scrolls contain a much shorter version of the story of David and Goliath, where Goliath is about three feet shorter and many details are omitted. Is this true, and if so, why?

Where the details differ is in the height of the giant. The Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament) lists Goliath’s height as four and one-half cubits instead of six and one-half cubits. So you have a difference between a translation and a canonical writing.

Height details aside, the biblical account is all about the Lord giving David, who on his own was no match for Goliath, victory over Israel’s enemy.

What does the white stone in Revelation 2:17 mean?

It is a picturesque way of speaking of “justification.” To justify means “to declare ‘not guilty.’” Jurors in biblical days voted by putting a black stone (for guilty) or a white stone (for innocent/not guilty) in a receptacle. Revelation 2:17 puts in memorable style what the Bible says elsewhere, that God, the righteous Judge, has declared us not guilty of sin for Jesus’ sake (Romans 4:25).

The Apostles' Creed states that Jesus descended into hell. I cannot find this in Scripture. When did this happen and why? I know others who have also questioned this.

The scriptural basis for Jesus’ descent into hell is 1 Peter 3:18-20: “For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.” Many also see Colossians 2:15 as alluding to Jesus’ descent into hell: “And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.”

After Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in the grave and before he appeared to people on earth, the Lord descended into hell. By his descent into hell, Jesus declared his victory over Satan and the forces of evil.

Is it true that 1 John 5:7 is not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the King James Bible?

A previous response to a similar question passed along this information: “When Erasmus was publishing a NT text at the time of Luther, he did not have those verses [1 John 5:7-8] in any of the Greek manuscripts that were extant at the time. He said he would insert them only if a Greek text were found that included them. Apparently, a scribe forged a Greek document with those verses in the text, and Erasmus, not knowing that the document was forged, kept his promise to include them. But the evidence for 1 John 5:7-8 does not warrant their inclusion.” This concerns the third edition of Erasmus’ Greek New Testament in 1522.

Since Martin Luther and the translators of the King James Version both used the Greek New Testament published by Erasmus, the verses in question made their way into their translations.

My brother told me that in Revelation 13 it says there will be a one government or ruler, and peace on earth. How can this be if Jesus said in Matthew 24 there will be rumors of war, nation against nation and kingdom against kingdom?

Revelation 13 describes Satan’s allies in church and state. It does not speak of peace on earth. Far from it, the chapter describes Satan’s allies troubling God’s people.

“Wars and rumors of war” (Matthew 24:6) are some of the signs that point to the end times.

When the last day comes, then God’s people will enjoy perfect peace forever (Revelation 21:1-4).

How does your denomination view same-sex marriage, LGBTQ, and women pastors?

The best and fairest approach I can take for you is to refer you to information that provides good context for our scriptural views on these subjects.

This first link will take you to a document that explains what the Bible teaches about marriage: “The Bible and Lutherans teach that marriage is the union of one man and one woman. It is a partnership in which the man is the loving head. Marriage is established by God. It is a holy relationship not to be broken. A married person sins if he or she divorces without a biblical reason. Before God, no divorce is valid except in cases of fornication or desertion. The tendency to consider marriage as unimportant results in great harm to the family, the church, and the nation. Genesis 2:18; Ephesians 5:24,25; Hebrews 13:4; Matthew 19:9; 1 Corinthians 7:15; Psalm 51:10”

This second link will take you to a “Statement on Homosexuality.”

A third link will take you to “This We Believe: A Statement of Belief of the WELS.” In the “Church and Ministry” section you will find this wording: “We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11,12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:33-35).”

More than anything else, know what we believe about salvation through Jesus Christ.  This final link will provide context for this statement:  “We believe that sinners are saved by grace alone. Grace is the undeserved love of God for sinners. This love led God to give sinners everything they need for their salvation. It is all a gift of God. People do nothing to earn any of it (Ephesians 2:8,9).”

Is there a grammatical, traditional, or other reason for when to pronounce the word 'Amen' either 'Ah-men' or 'Ay-men'?

The pronunciation of the Hebrew and Greek words is “ah-Main.” When we transliterate those words into English, we encounter differences of opinion and traditions. A common practice is to speak “Ay-men” and sing “Ah-men” (using your examples). There is no right or wrong when it comes to this.

Do you have any recommendations on the best commentaries on the Book of James? I'm looking for something beyond the People's Bible Commentaries. Thanks.

The Wisconsin Lutheran Quarterly provided such a list a few years ago but, because of the emphasis on original language work, the recommended books were intended for pastors’ libraries.

You might benefit from the Whole Bible Project from Northwestern Publishing House. It is described as “an ideal companion to the popular People’s Bible series.”

This link will take you to the General Epistles Set that covers the book of James.

It is possible that you can obtain another reliable commentary on the book of James from your pastor or your church library.

Where can I find a trustworthy explanation/interpretation of Daniel chapter 7?

As The People’s Bible series covers all the books of the Bible, there is a volume in the series that explains the contents of Daniel.

This link will show how you can purchase a copy from Northwestern Publishing House. You might also be able to borrow a book from your pastor or your church’s library.

The book summarizes its contents this way: “As a young man, Daniel was among the first Jews who were deported to Babylon. A man of great faith, he held important government positions during the difficult time of captivity. Through Daniel, God showed his exiled people what the future would hold and that he would care for them in every situation.”

I am having a small debate/discussion with non-WELS friends and I would like to convey the belief I have that we believe that Christ died for our sins. The definition of believe is 'to accept something as true...' according to the Merriam-Webster dictionary. The friends are saying that it is a two-step process to 'accept' Christ... first to 'know' that Jesus died for your sins and then to 'accept' him as your Savior. I grew up in the WELS Lutheran church from birth and was baptized and confirmed in the same church. I recall this discussion over the years, but would like to know if there are any Bible verses that I could mention to them in addition to saying what I have here about the definition of believe. Thank you for your time.

Saving faith consists of knowledge (John 17:3), assent that the knowledge is true (1 Thessalonians 2:13) and, above all, trust in Jesus Christ as Savior (Psalm 31:14; John 20:28; 2 Timothy 1:12).

The Bible makes it clear that saving faith is not a human decision (Romans 8:7; 1 Corinthians 2:14; 12:3; Ephesians 2:8. That last verse states clearly that saving faith is a “gift” from God. What Jesus said of his first disciples is true of all his followers: “You did not choose me, but I chose you…” (John 15:16).

The only reason you and I can accept as true what the Bible teaches is because of the Holy Spirit’s working in our hearts through that same word of God.

I hope this helps. God bless your conversations with your friends.

I read a daily devotion on April 3, 2018 titled "The Orchard." It really was inspiring to me and I am unable to find it to re-read it. Is there any way to get it? Thanks.

Below is the devotion you were seeking. God bless your devotional life!

Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 1 Corinthians 15:20.

It’s difficult to put into words how it feels for the owners of an apple orchard when a bumper crop of apples is just beginning to ripen. You could ask the owners, of course. But even they would find it difficult to come up with what to say. What they feel in their veins is a strange brew of adrenalin, purpose, anticipation, and joy. And that indescribable sensation begins every time they spot those first few ripened apples on those first few trees. The core of such a thrill is in knowing that this beautiful, ripened fruit is only the first of many and many more to come.

Keep that in mind the next time you are in a funeral procession. Keep that in mind the next time you find yourself accompanying the remains of a Christian to the cemetery.

As you stand at the gravesite, look at the casket or the urn. Then look at the row upon row of tombstones around you. Think of all the Christians whose bodies quietly rest beneath the green lawn on which you stand. Even though, in that moment, you are looking at that place through the eyes of grief, remember how your God sees it. For those who die in the Lord, a cemetery is not a final resting place. Not at all.

Rather, a cemetery for the Christian is more like an orchard. And not only is it like an orchard, it is like an orchard poised and pulsating with anticipation and joy. For the reality is that our Brother, Jesus Christ, has already risen from the grave, his body glorious and perfect.

Because he has already conquered sin and death through his own death on the cross, we know that his resurrection is only the first of many and many more to come.

And so, do we grieve when death comes? Of course. But never forget that underneath even our grief there is that wonderful pulse of anticipation and joy.

It is there because Jesus lives!

Prayer: Lord Jesus, the next time the death of a dear Christian brings me grief, remind me that underneath even my grief there lies the vibrant joy of what soon will come. Amen.

My question has to do with how I would reconcile complete and unconditional forgiveness of others with some of the psalms that may appear to represent the opposite. An example would be Psalm 109 and others like it, in which revenge against enemies is wanted with very specific examples given. If I pray along with a psalm like this and feel the same way I can imagine David did in the psalm towards people who harmed him, how can I reconcile wanting and asking for revenge, while simultaneously forgiving the same individuals?

When reading the “imprecatory psalms” like Psalm 109, it is important to keep in mind that the inspired writers were not expressing personal vengeance for their enemies. They were asking God to deal with his enemies according to his promise: “It is mine to avenge; I will repay” (Deuteronomy 32:35).

God is loving and God is just. As a loving God, he desires the salvation of all people (John 3:16; 1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9). As a just God, he will condemn those who reject him (Mark 16:16).

In our prayer life as Christians, we reflect God’s attributes of love and justice. We pray for the salvation of others, and we pray that God “breaks and defeats every evil plan and purpose of the devil, the world, and our sinful flesh, which try to prevent us from keeping God’s name holy and letting his kingdom” (Luther’s Small Catechism, the Third Petition of the Lord’s Prayer).

Keeping that explanation in mind, our praying of the Lord’s Prayer is not unlike the content of the imprecatory psalms: while we pray for God to keep us in the saving faith and bring others to saving faith, we pray that God defeats everyone and everything ultimately opposed to his kingdom.

Like the inspired psalm writers, personal vengeance is not part of our prayers. We ask God to deal with his enemies according to his promise: “Do not take revenge, my dear friends, but leave room for God’s wrath, for it is written: ‘It is mine to avenge; I will repay,’ says the Lord” (Romans 12:19).

How can I best explain to a friend the difference between the Old Testament laws that no longer apply to us ( like women covering their heads) and those that still apply, which address questions like women voting, or helping lead worship. She equates all of these. How can I best direct her in God's Word for better understanding?

The “Light for our path” column in the May 2014 issue of Forward in Christ addressed a question very similar to yours: “Old Testament laws are often quoted on Facebook as still being applicable. I would like to let people know from the Bible that this is not correct. Where can I start?”

The beginning of the answer starts this way: “Where do you start with a response? By recognizing that the laws in the Old Testament varied in purpose and duration.”

This link will take you to that column.

When it comes to other parts of your question, it is a matter of helping your friend see the difference between universal principles and the application of scriptural principles. A book like “A Bible Study of Man and Woman in God’s World” would be helpful for you in speaking to your friend. It is available from Northwestern Publishing House.

The questions you have asked are important. The responses needed are longer than is appropriate for this forum. That is why I am recommending these resources. I pray they are helpful.

In one of the creeds I remember saying in school and church that Jesus, after he died, descended into hell. Could you please reference some Bible verses so I can understand this better?

In the Apostles’ Creed we confess about Jesus: “He descended into hell.”

The scriptural basis for Jesus’ descent into hell is 1 Peter 3:18-20: “For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.” Many also see Colossians 2:15 as alluding to Jesus’ descent into hell: “And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.”

After Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in the grave and before he appeared to people on earth, the Lord descended into hell. By his descent into hell, Jesus declared his victory over Satan and the forces of evil.

Is it the will of God that the Jews would reject Jesus Christ in order for the gentiles to have salvation? Will the Jews go to hell for rejecting Christ?

God “wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth” (1 Timothy 2:4). God wants “everyone to come to repentance” (2 Peter 3:9). It is people who reject God (Matthew 23:37). The apostle Paul explained that the Jews’ rejection of the gospel of Jesus Christ resulted in the expansion of his ministry to the Gentiles (Acts 13:46-47). It was not God’s will that the Jews reject Jesus Christ.

Anyone—Jew or Gentile—who rejects Jesus Christ as Savior will be condemned eternally in hell (Mark 16:16).

Your question underscores the urgency in sharing the gospel of Jesus Christ with all people. “Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to mankind by which we must be saved” (Acts 4:12).

Why did Jesus have to suffer such an horrendous death to forgive us our sins if it was he who forgave us our sins to begin with, assuming he is God? Why didn’t he just forgive us?

Jesus is God. Our Catechism teaches us that Jesus has divine names (Luke 2:11), he has divine attributes (John 1:2), he is responsible for divine works (cf. his many miracles) and he is to be given divine honor (John 5:22-23).

God explains in the Bible that he is a just and loving God. His justice demands that sin be punished (Ezekiel 18; Romans 6:23). His love moved him to provide a substitute to live and die in the place of sinners (Romans 5:19; 2 Corinthians 5:21).

The Bible teaches that the forgiveness of sins is God’s free gift to people through faith in Jesus his Son. While forgiveness of sins is free to you and me, it came at a great cost to God. For that we praise God (2 Corinthians 5:15).

In "Meditations" on August 17, 2018, it said, "Yes, Jesus suffered the torments of hell to pay for the sins of the whole world." Is that a reference to the Apostles' Creed when it says, "He descended into hell"? Could you give me the Bible passage that says that Jesus suffered in hell? I always understood that Jesus "descended into hell" to proclaim victory. Am I misinterpreting this sentence in "Meditations" or reading too much into it?

Your understanding of Jesus’ descent into hell is correct. Jesus went to hell to proclaim his victory over Satan and his allies. 1 Peter 3:18-20 describes that event. Many also see Colossians 2:15 as alluding to the Lord’s descent into hell.

Because Jesus’ descent into hell was one of triumph, there is no Bible passage that speaks of him suffering in hell.

When I read that “Jesus suffered the torments of hell to pay for the sins of the whole world,” I understand that this way—that, on the cross, “Jesus suffered what amounts to hell.” Hell is where people are abandoned by God and punished for sin. On the cross, Jesus suffered that abandonment and punishment when he cried out, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46)

Your question encourages us all to speak and write in the clearest manner possible, so that there is no misunderstanding of biblical truth.

I was asked a couple of questions in my lay-led Bible class at the assisted living facility and didn't have the answers. I am hopeful somebody can help me. We are going through the book of Joshua. 1) How did God speak to Joshua? Was it vocal, visions, or some other way? 2) This led into the question of what does it mean to "have The Spirit live in us" and "full of The Spirit?" Was God speaking to Joshua through The Spirit living in him? I appreciate any insight or thoughts you can share with me concerning this. Thanks!

“In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe” (Hebrews 1:1-2). While the Bible informs us that God spoke through the prophets “in various ways,” it does not always indicate the specific way in which God communicated to those men in a given section of Scripture. As you indicated, God’s communication could have been through “vocal, visions, or some other way” (Numbers 27:21).

The Bible does speak of God’s Spirit living in Christians. “Don’t you know that you yourselves are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in your midst?” (1 Corinthians 3:16) “Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God?” (1 Corinthians 6:19) “Now it is God who makes both us and you stand firm in Christ. He anointed us, set his seal of ownership on us, and put his Spirit in our hearts as a deposit, guaranteeing what is to come” (2 Corinthians 1:21-22). “Because you are his sons, God sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, the Spirit who calls out, ‘Abba, Father’” (Galatians 4:6).” And in him you too are being built together to become a dwelling in which God lives by his Spirit” (Ephesians 2:22).”

You might be interested in using The People’s Bible for Joshua in your Bible class preparation. God’s blessings on your Bible study!

What is role of circumcision and the New Testament?

While circumcision was a requirement for God’s Old Testament people of Israel, it is no longer obligatory for followers of God in the New Testament age. The New Testament makes that clear. “Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing. Keeping God’s commands is what counts” (1 Corinthians 7:19). “For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision nor uncircumcision has any value. The only thing that counts is faith expressing itself through love” (Galatians 5:6). “Neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything; what counts is the new creation” (Galatians 6:15). Circumcision was part of God’s Old Testament ceremonial laws.

Who was Jesus before he became human? Was he an angel?

Jesus Christ is the eternal Son of God (John 1:1-3; 8:58; 17:5; 17:24; Colossians 1:16-17; Revelation 1:8; 22:13). As “God is spirit” (John 4:24), Jesus had no physical body prior to his conception by the Holy Spirit and his birth at Bethlehem.

There were times in the Old Testament (for example, Genesis 16:7-12 and Genesis 22:11-19) when Jesus, prior to his incarnation, appeared to people as “the angel of the Lord.”

Praise God that Jesus took on human flesh “to destroy the devil’s work” (1 John 3:8)!

Could you please explain the meaning of the word "folly" which is in Mark 7:22, and also what may be some current examples of this in our society? Thank you.

The meaning of the Greek word is “foolishness, lack of sense: moral and intellectual.”

We can find current examples of this in our society simply by looking at the sins Jesus mentioned in Mark 7:21-22. The commission of those sins indicates a lack of moral sense. As Jesus pointed out, such sins flow from within—from hearts that are sinful by nature.

This is why we confess that we are naturally sinful and that we have sinned against God by our thoughts and words and deeds. Through the power of the Holy Spirit, we also confess that we have forgiveness for our sins through Jesus, who lived perfectly in our place and endured the punishment our sins deserved.

Is an NRSV with Apocrypha an acceptable Bible to use for devotional purposes?

The New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) is a 1989 revision of the Revised Standard Version (RSV), which first appeared in 1952. Both versions are products of the National Council of Churches.

While the NRSV updated the English language of the RSV, it retained some of its objectionable features. Probably most noteworthy is its denial of the prophecy of the virgin birth of Christ (Isaiah 7:14).

While the apocryphal books are not canonical, they can serve as useful reading materials. Martin Luther included them between the Old Testament and the New Testament in his German Bible. He did so with the instruction that, while the books can provide useful reading, they are not to be considered on the same level as the canonical books.

I would encourage you to use a different, more reliable Bible translation for your devotional purposes. If you use the one about which you are inquiring, you would do well to use another, more reliable Bible translation alongside it. This link will take you to the Bible translations offered by Northwestern Publishing House.

Should every Christian have a copy of the King James Bible?

In all seriousness, if you had been able to ask me this question 300-400 years ago, I would have said, “Yes.” That is because if you wanted an English translation of the Bible back then, the King James Version (KJV) was the book to get.

Even though the KJV has undergone many revisions since its introduction in 1611 (I am not speaking of the New King James Version), the language can be a barrier to many English-speaking people today.

If Christians use the KJV and understand it, I say, “Keep reading it.” If Christians use the KJV and do not understand it, I would encourage them to find a reliable, contemporary translation of the Bible they can understand. Ownership of a Bible is one thing. Readability is an entirely different matter.

“Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls” (James 1:21, KJV). “Therefore, get rid of all moral filth and the evil that is so prevalent and humbly accept the word planted in you, which can save you” (James 1:21, NIV). There are different ways of saying that God’s word is precious. Christians treasure God’s word by reading it, believing it and doing what it says.

My name is Beth. I have often opened my Bible to the Word BETH in Psalm 119. I have learned it's a letter of the alphabet. Please explain the meaning for it here. With thanks.

Beth (pronounced “bayth” in Hebrew) is the second letter of the Hebrew alphabet. Psalm 119 is a very involved acrostic psalm. In verses 1-8, each verse begins with a word that starts with Aleph, the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet (our “A”). In verses 9-16, each verse begins with a word that starts with Beth (our “B”). The psalm continues with that format, working through the letters of the Hebrew alphabet. It is very difficult to reproduce that technique in an English translation, because the first word of every verse in verses 9-16 would need to begin with an English word that starts with “B.”

By the way, if you have often opened up your Bible to Psalm 119, there is probably some explanation for that. That psalm is just about in the middle of the Bible. I hope this information is helpful for you.

Why do we (WELS) insist on the Commandment "Thou shall have no other gods before me" be shortened to "Thou shall have no other gods"? I feel it changes the meaning completely.

A literal translation of Exodus 20:3 is that God commands people not to have other gods “upon/in front of/against my face.” “Before me” does convey that idea.

On the other hand, a Bible translation that does not contain that phrase does not water down the commandment. In the preceding verse (Exodus 20:2), the LORD identified himself as the God who brought the Israelites out of slavery. He is the only God who exists. Any attempt to have a god other than the God of the Bible is idolatry. That is what the first commandment prohibits.

What Bible translation did the WELS use when it was first formed in 1850?

It would have been very common to find editions of Luther’s German translation of the Bible in use in those early years. As the English language gained momentum in our congregations, churches would have used the King James Version of the Bible.

Deciding which translation to use for its worship, devotional and educational purposes is a congregational matter.

What does the writer of Hebrews mean here? Hebrews 4:9ff - "There remains, then, a Sabbath-rest for the people of God; for anyone who enters God’s rest also rests from their works, just as God did from his. Let us, therefore, make every effort to enter that rest, so that no one will perish by following their example of disobedience."

The writer is referring to the spiritual and eternal rest that Christians can look forward to in heaven.

The Old Testament Sabbath day pointed ahead to Jesus. He said, “Come to me, all you who are weary and burdened, and I will give you rest” (Matthew 11:28). The rest that people can find in Jesus is that which comes from the forgiveness of sins and the promise of eternal life.

In this life, Christians find rest for their souls in the gospel message that their sins are forgiven and they are at peace with God. In the life to come, Christians will have perfect and eternal rest for their souls because they will be forever free from sin and all their spiritual enemies.

The writer to the Hebrews encourages Christians to “make every effort to enter that rest” (Hebrews 4:11). That means that we do what we can to remain connected to Jesus Christ in faith. That means that we use God’s gospel in word and sacrament faithfully. God grant that we do just that.

Where does it say in the Bible that women can’t vote within the church? In a congregation, who decides when Communion is held, pastor, church council or congregation ?

The Bible does not specifically address your first question. The organizational structure of congregations today is quite different from the first-century church. Because of that, we need to take broad scriptural principles and apply them to the organizational structure we enjoy in our congregations today.

Those scriptural principles include that of loving head and loving helper (Genesis 2:18; 1 Corinthians 11:3). Regarding your question, this principle means that “We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11,12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:33-35).” That statement is from This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body.

On another section of this website, you will find a doctrinal statement on “Man and Woman Roles.” The section of that statement that addresses your first question follows:

“17. The biblical principle of role relationship applies also to the gatherings of the church. All believers, men and women, will participate at gatherings of worship, prayer, Bible study, and service. The scriptural applications that a woman remain silent (1 Co 14:34) and that a woman should not teach a man (1 Ti 2:11,12) require that a woman refrain from participating in these gatherings in any way which involves authority over men.

“18. In church assemblies the headship principle means that only men will cast votes when such votes exercise authority over men. Only men will do work that involves authority over men (1 Co 11:3-10; 14:33-35; 1 Ti 2:11,12).

“19. All Christians, men and women, are to use their God-given gifts to serve each other (1 Pe 4:10). Women are encouraged to participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where the work involves authority over men.” This link will enable you to read those paragraphs in context.

When it comes to a schedule of Holy Communion worship services, it could be that the pastor and the Board of Elders propose a schedule and then report to the Church Council and/or Voters Assembly for ratification or to pass along that information. Congregational members might be surveyed to indicate their preferences for a Holy Communion Schedule.

Recognizing the variety of ways that congregations govern themselves, it is probably safe to say that a congregation’s regular Holy Communion schedule often originates with thoughts from its pastor, but then he works through proper channels for the schedule to become the congregation’s.

If you have questions about your congregation’s Communion schedule, do speak to your pastor.

The Bible has 6 billion books in circulation. The book that is second place has about 930 million. What is it?

There are many “Top Ten” book lists available. One source I located suggests that Quotations from the Works of Mao Tse-tung is in second place. Let’s do what we can to keep the Bible in first place.

How is it that confessional Lutherans hold to the “inerrancy” of the Bible when Luther himself advocated for the removal of the books of Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation from the canon? That to me indicates that Luther himself didn’t view the entire canon as “God’s word” and found error in it. I could be wrong, but I’ve also been taught that the Lutheran confessions do not mention inerrancy either. Than you.

Like other Christians, Martin Luther voiced opinions about certain books of the Bible. He spoke for himself. His views do not bind the consciences of others, nor do they constitute the foundation of faith. Scripture alone is the foundation of Christian faith (Ephesians 2:20).

Luther included the books of the Bible you mentioned in his German translation of the Bible. (He also included apocryphal books, and inserted the heading that those books were not to be considered canonical but could serve as useful reading.)

For the most part, the Lutheran Confessions addressed doctrines over which Lutherans and the Roman Catholic Church disagreed. If there was agreement (as in the case of the inerrancy of Scripture), there was no need for a separate article on the topic.

The Lutheran Confessions do place a high value on Scripture. To see that, you could read the introduction to the Formula of Concord, the Large Catechism and the Smalcald Articles.

I am having a crisis of faith from reading the early church fathers with regard to anointing with oil. The church fathers claim this is just like baptism and the Lord’s Supper. Why don’t Lutherans anoint with oil?

The foundation of our faith is Scripture not church fathers. When the Bible speaks of anointing with oil (James 5:14), it does so in the context of receiving medical help. In the Scripture verse just cited, James used a Greek word that speaks of a medicinal use of oil (as in the case of the wounded traveler in the parable of the Good Samaritan in Luke 10:34). James did not use the Greek word that speaks of a ceremonial application of oil. Such application is neither commanded nor forbidden in Scripture.

I know Jesus is the Word, and Scripture is also God's Word, but what about apostolic tradition? Is apostolic tradition the Word of God as Catholics say?

No. Scripture stands alone as God’s written revelation. The inspired writings of the apostles and prophets (Ephesians 4:19-20), not apostolic tradition, form the foundation of the Christian faith.

God made it very clear that no one was to add to or subtract from his inspired word (Deuteronomy 4:2; Revelation 22:18-19).

My wife is physically unable to have kids. I knew this before getting married and believed at the time that I may at some point become interested in adopting, though I didn't consider myself ready at the time. A few years later, I still do not feel called to being a parent, and I do not see myself being interested in adopting. My wife is struggling with the lack of having children (especially as compared to our friends who are having children), and I feel like I'm failing her by not wanting children. I feel that if I decided to adopt to make my wife happy, this would not be done out of love for a child, and I wouldn't be operating out of the love that a father should have. Is it a sin to not be interested in having children? I have tried to view our situation as a blessing from God as it allows us more opportunities to help others with our free time, but it feels like I am letting my wife down. On a separate note, she is struggling mentally with infertility, and I'm struggling to know how to support her spiritually. It feels like any time a person asks us about children or mentions to her "how great she would be as a mother", it sends her on another downward spiral. I'm not sure how to lift her up and any words of support feel like they are hollow.

The Bible calls children a “heritage” and a “reward” (Psalm 127:3). Of course, people’s attitudes toward children might or might not agree with that.

If a Christian husband and wife are physically able to have children and choose not to have children, they will need to examine their motives to see how they line up with God’s word. Your situation is quite different from that. Still, you and your wife want to understand—and come to an agreement—on other ways in which children might become a part of your family, and that is through adoption.

I cannot say that it is always sinful for a couple not to want to have children. There might be a concern for the physical, emotional or mental state of one or both spouses. In that case, a desire not to adopt is understandable.

When it comes to your question and the concern how to support your wife emotionally, the best course of action for both of you is to speak to your pastor. If, for whatever reason, that is not an option, Christian Family Solutions, an agency within WELS, offers video counseling from the privacy of your home or counseling in a face-to-face environment. This link will take you to their website.

Additionally, you and your wife could benefit from the resources of Christian Life Resources, another agency within WELS. This link will take you to their website. One of the banners at the top of their home page is “Family Topics.” Underneath that banner are categories like “Fertility/Infertility” and “Adoption.” You will find some good reading material there.

On a side note, my wife and I adopted our two children 28+ years ago. Every story is different, I know. We went through infertility tests and then went the adoption route: one was an international adoption and the other domestic. For us, it was one blessing from God after another. All these years later, even with an international adoption, my wife and I have to remind ourselves that our children are adopted.

I hope you have received some help through this response. I really encourage you to follow through with the suggestions for resources that are listed. God bless you and your wife.

What is the WELS position on homosexual orientation (not actions)? I read the document on this WELS page, but am still unclear on the WELS position. Is it similar to the Catholic position of 'intrinsically disordered, but not in and of it self sin'? I am talking about the orientation/propensity, not actions or desires. Thank you.

Since I do not know what you read on our website, let me pass along the following information from the “What We Believe” section of our website. It addresses your question.

“Note on homosexuality as innate or chosen

Some advocates of legal and religious tolerance of homosexuality claim that homosexuality has a genetic cause. Some reports claim that some homosexual men share a particular pattern in the X sex-chromosome that they received from their mother. Other researchers have claimed the existence of other types of biological similarities between homosexual men. These researchers acknowledge that their discoveries cannot account for all homosexuality and may merely be associated with homosexuality rather than being a direct cause of it. Most researchers conclude that the origins of homosexuality are complex and varied and may never be fully understood.

“How should we evaluate such claims in the light of the biblical teaching of sin? Is homosexuality a free choice or an inborn tendency?

“Like many such either-or questions, this question poses a false dilemma. Every sin is both a choice of the will and the expression of an inborn tendency to sin. Our sinful will is guilty of consent whenever we sin in thought, word, or deed. As a result of our sinful nature we take pleasure in our sins and defend them. This universal tendency is apparent also in the efforts of gay rights activists to condone their homosexuality and to deny that anything is wrong with it.

“Although the consent of our sinful will is present in every sin, it is also true that we are born as slaves of sin. We may also yield to a particular sin so often that we no longer control the sin, but the sin controls us. We may find ourselves yielding to sin even when we don’t want to.

“Sin infects both our body and our soul. The body we now have is not the perfect body that God created for Adam and Eve. It has been contaminated by the effects of sin. There is no reason to maintain that the specific effects of sin have been identical in each one of us or that we are all equally susceptible to every sin. Our individual degree of susceptibility to some specific sins may be due in part to differences in our bodies. Abuse of alcohol and a hot temper are just two examples of sins that may be affected by the chemistry of our bodies. Few would deny that the pressure to sexual sin is greater at 18 than it is at 8 or at 88 and that a primary reason for this is the changing chemistry of our bodies. It may well be that a person’s susceptibility to homosexuality or to certain other sins depends in part on bodily differences.

“Even though the weakness of our own body may be one factor that leads us to sin, God holds us responsible for all of our sins, even those sins that enslave us and those sins that we are not aware of. We need God’s forgiveness even for those sinful desires that we resist and do not act upon. These desires too are sin. (Read Romans 7 for a treatment of slavery to sin.) Christ’s forgiveness covers every form of every sin for the repentant.”

At first glance, doesn't verse 14 of the 3rd chapter of St. Peter's second Epistle seem to contradict our central teaching of righteousness and salvation by grace alone and by faith alone?

You make a good observation: Bible verses like the one you cited and others (Philippians 2:12, for example) require more than a passing glance to understand them correctly.

A critical factor in correctly understanding the Bible is keeping the context in mind. In 2 Peter chapter three, the apostle is focusing on the Last Day. After explaining some of the events of that day, Peter offers this instruction: “So then, dear friends, since you are looking forward to this, make every effort to be found spotless, blameless and at peace with him” (2 Peter 3:14).

Other parts of the Bible teach that we are blameless in the sight of God because of Jesus’ redeeming work (Ephesians 5:25-27). The apostle Peter’s words instruct Christians to continue in the saving faith so that they are blameless through the forgiveness of sins on the Last Day. Continuing in the saving faith means that Christians use faithfully the means of grace so that the Holy Spirit can strengthen and preserve faith.

Hello, recently I have been struggling with my Lutheran beliefs and I am now thinking about converting to the Roman Catholic Church. The main problem I have is Sola Scriptura. Can you please show me where in the Bible it teaches Sola Scriptura? The verses that trouble me are 2 Thessalonians 2:15, 1 Timothy 3:15, 1 Corinthians 11:2, and 2 Timothy 2:14. Please help with this.

In the Bible God makes it clear that we are not to add to or subtract from his word (Deuteronomy 4:2; Revelation 22:18-19). The apostle Paul states clearly that God’s word is the foundation of the Christian Church and Jesus Christ is the chief cornerstone (Ephesians 2:20). Jesus tells us to search the Scriptures (John 5:39) and not to look anywhere else for saving truth (Luke 16:29). Jesus rebuked people who added to the word of God (Matthew 15:7-9).

2 Thessalonians 2:15 – The apostle Paul taught the Christians in Thessalonica in person (Acts 17) and through his inspired letters to them.

1 Timothy 3:15 – God preserves the truth of his word among Christians and looks for his people to proclaim that truth.

1 Corinthians 11:2 – The apostle Paul taught the Christians in Corinth in person (Acts 18) and through his inspired letters to them.

2 Timothy 2:14 – The apostle Paul wanted Timothy to remind other Christians of what he had just written previously in this inspired letter.

If you are seriously thinking of affiliating with the Roman Catholic Church, you want to ask yourself: “Do I want to leave a church that proclaims the biblical truth that we are saved by God’s grace through faith alone in Jesus Christ and join a church that officially—through the Council of Trent—condemns that proclamation?” I pray that answering that question eliminates your struggles.

What is the significance of the number 144,000 in Revelation 14? What does it stand for?

Numbers in Revelation are symbolic. 10, and its multiples like 1,000, represent completeness or fullness. 12 symbolizes the church (twelve tribes of Israel, twelve apostles). The product of multiplying these numbers is 144,000. That number represents the entire church of God in Old and New Testament times.

We come across the 144,000 first in Revelation 7:4, where God sealed his believers on earth. Then, we see the 144,000 again in Revelation 14:1. This time they are in heaven. Their presence in heaven illustrates what Jesus said in John 10:27-29 – “My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. I and the Father are one.”

The “multitude that no one could count” from Revelation 7:9 makes it clear that the number 144,000 is symbolic and not literal.

What is the WELS position on terminating a pregnancy?

Elsewhere on this website, you will find this statement in This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body: “We believe, for example, that the Fifth Commandment teaches that all human life is a gift from God. This commandment speaks against abortion, suicide, and euthanasia (‘mercy killing’).” This link will provide you with that quotation in context.

Also on our website is a doctrinal statement on abortion. This link will take you to that statement.

Finally, I can direct you to this information on the website of Christian Life Resources, an organization within WELS.

Is the RFID chip I'm hearing about people getting in their hand the mark of the beast?

No. The “mark” or seal in Revelation 13:16 is a symbolic way of denoting ownership: those people belong to the beast.

By way of contrast, consider how Revelation 7:4 describes God putting a seal or mark on his people. That symbolic sealing identified them as belonging to God.

Those verses illustrate the truth of Jesus’ words: “Whoever is not with me is against me” (Matthew 12:30). There is no middle ground when it comes to Jesus Christ.

What does it mean to use God's name in vain, and can you give an example? Thank you.

God’s second commandment forbids “taking his name in vain” or “misusing his name.” Bible translations use both those phrases. “Misusing God’s name” might be easier for us to understand the intent of the commandment.

In the Bible, God has revealed his name for good purposes: that we might know him in faith, pray to him and share him with others. What God does not want us to do with his name is use it needlessly, without purpose, or wrongly.

So, a wrong use of God’s name is uttering it as an interjection when we are surprised or upset about something: “Oh, my God!” That is a common needless use of God’s name. Martin Luther’s explanation of the second commandment in his Catechism informs us that other misuses of God’s name involve cursing, swearing, lying, deceiving and witchcraft.

Luther reminds us from Scripture that God gave us his name to “call upon [it] in every trouble, pray, praise, and give thanks.”

Did Jesus actually drink wine? I have heard many say that Jesus drank grape juice, because the Greek word for wine can mean grape juice.

The Greek word for wine that the inspired Bible writers used means “wine, fermented grape juice.” There is a Greek word for unfermented grape juice, but the Bible writers did not use that word.

There is nothing sinful in the moderate use of alcoholic beverages such as wine. Jesus’ use of wine in his celebration of the Passover with his disciples—and the institution of the Lord’s Supper—illustrates that.

The phrase that the Gospel writers use in their accounts of the institution of the Lord’s Supper (“fruit of the vine,” Matthew 26:29; Mark 14:25; Luke 22:18) refers to wine. We know from history that the Passover celebration included wine. We also know that any grape juice made from the fall harvests would not have remained grape juice by the time of the Passover celebrations in spring.

My uncle is ELCA and I am WELS. The last time we saw each other, we got on the topic of religion. He fully believes that Jesus died for his sins and he is very devout to his faith, as he reads the Bible nearly every morning. But when I asked him if the Bible is without error, he answered that he thinks the Bible has several errors. He doesn’t believe in Genesis because no one was actually there to record it and parts of the Old Testament. He also claims that the Bible has gone through multiple translations and changes throughout history, saying that Constantine changed many things in the Bible to draw and force people to Christianity. Is this true? I’ll be seeing him over Christmas and I’m sure we’ll get on this topic again. How would I answer this argument? Thanks!

It is good that your uncle reads the Bible faithfully. You could help him out by encouraging him to read Psalm 119. In great detail, the psalm writer explains that “All your words are true” (Psalm 119:160). Other psalms also speak of God’s word being flawless – Psalm 12:6; Psalm 18:30. Proverbs 30:5 states the same truth. In John 17:17 Jesus does as well.

If God’s word is true, and it is, then everything in it is true. That includes the creation account. Certainly, God alone was present when he called everything into existence, and God alone provides the account of his creation. Christian faith takes God at his word (Hebrews 11:3).

Constantine did not change anything in the Bible. He reversed the direction that Diocletian took towards Christians and gave their religion legal status.

God inspired the writers of his word to write exactly what he wanted (1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21). God preserved his word through careful copyists throughout history. The result is that we today have God’s word—a lamp for our feet and a light for our path (Psalm 119:105).

A valuable Christmas gift for your uncle would be a good book on biblical interpretation or creation. The books are available from Northwestern Publishing House.

God bless your conversations with your uncle. Have a blessed Christmas!

I have read numerous commentaries, confessional Lutheran resources, study Bibles etc. and I can't find an answer on what the mark and number of the beast mentioned in Revelation is referring to. Many today claim it could be a microchip put in the hand or forehead. I am not tempted to think our doctrine is wrong but on this point with what we're seeing today the mark of the beast and the mircrochip seem like a frightening coincidence. Could you please explain to me what we as WELS Lutherans teach about the mark of the beast? And please don't forget to address what Scripture means when it says you can't buy or sell without taking this mark? Many WELS resources don't touch on that point much (having the mark to buy or sell). Thank you.

The “mark” in Revelation 13:16 is a symbolic way of denoting ownership: those people belong to the beast. By way of contrast, consider how Revelation 7:4 describes God putting a seal on his people. That symbolic sealing identified them as belonging to God.

Those verses illustrate the truth of Jesus’ words: “Whoever is not with me is against me” (Matthew 12:30). There is no middle ground when it comes to Jesus Christ.

Regarding Revelation 13:17 (…”so that they could not buy or sell unless they had the mark, which is the name of the beast or the number of its name.”), Dr. Siegbert Becker offered this explanation in Revelation: The Distant Triumph Song: “This mark gives them the right to engage in commerce and to participate in the economic activity of the community. The sort of thing spoken of here is illustrated in many communist countries, where one must openly demonstrate allegiance to the atheistic form of government in order to participate fully in the business world as well as in the world of politics. In many of those countries, for example, young people are denied a higher education and entrance into the professions unless they join organizations for communist youth. Thus, in a sense, they cannot ‘buy or sell’ unless they have ‘the mark, the name of the beast of the number of his name.’” (pages 211-212)

The book is available from Northwestern Publishing House.

How do we know earth is a sphere? The information we’ve been taught is from scientists who also teach evolution. The pictures we see are from NASA who are also scientists. How do we know those pictures are real or made up in Hollywood? The Bible says that God moved the sun backwards. That sounds like the sun revolves around the earth. It also talks about a firmament or dome.

It would not be accurate to conclude that all scientists teach evolution and deny the Bible’s creation account. There are scientists past (including some in the Scientific Revolution of the seventeenth century) and present who recognize(d) God as the Creator of all.

A very recent question and answer addressed the subject matter of your question. You will find that information here.

How far back was the Noah and the Ark incident?

Yours is a concise but challenging question. Because the genealogies in the Old Testament were not intended to be complete, it is difficult to arrive at accurate dates for some of the oldest events. A common thought is that the Flood of Noah’s day could have taken place some 1,700 years after creation. That is only an approximation by some people.

You might be interested to read “Old Testament Chronology.” It is a short paper from the Wisconsin Lutheran Seminary Essay File.

Hi, good day. I would like to know what is a heresy. Thanks.

“Heresy” is false doctrine. It is a belief or teaching that is not biblical. An example would be saying that people save themselves by the things they do in life. The Bible teaches that people enjoy God’s free gift of salvation through faith in Jesus Christ alone (Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5-6).

Because heresies are so serious, the prayer of the hymn writer is very much in place: “O gracious Lord, direct us, Your doctrine pure defend, From heresies protect us, And for your Word contend, That we may praise you ever, O God, with one accord And say: The Lord our Savior Be evermore adored!” (Christian Worship 585:3)

If the Sabbath was instituted in the Garden of Eden, and precedes the Mosaic Law, why don't modern Christians observe the Sabbath? I get why we would be freed from the Mosaic ordinances of the Sabbath, but why don't we consider the day especially sanctified (more so than a Sunday or Monday) if the Sabbath precedes the Mosaic Law?

While Genesis 2:2-3 speaks of God resting on the seventh day after creating all things, that section of the Bible does not contain an instruction for any people to imitate God’s actions. The command for the people of Israel to observe the Sabbath day took place during the days of Moses (Exodus 20:8-11).

The context of the command does contain a reference to God resting from his work of creation, but it is a reference only. The command to observe the Sabbath day came about in Moses’ day.

As the command to observe the Sabbath day was part of the Old Testament ceremonial law, it is no longer binding on New Testament followers of the Lord (Colossians 2:16). God still desires that we gather together to worship him (Hebrews 10:25), but he has not specified a particular day of the week.

Are people higher than the angels? I have always believed and been told that this is true as we are God's children and they are God's servants or messengers. My pastor disagreed, quoting psalms 8:5. I discussed this with my ELS family, including my sister, a former Christian day school teacher married to an ELS minister and she too believed we are higher than the angels. I have read 1 Corinthians 6:3 and other NT references and now I am confused.

You will want to define what you mean by “higher” or (“lower”). Are people the crown of God’s creation (Genesis 1:26-2:3), the objects of God’s redeeming love in Christ (Hebrews 2:10-18; 1 Peter 1:12), the beneficiaries of angels’ service (Hebrews 1:14), and, along with Jesus, future judges of the evil angels (1 Corinthians 6:3; Jude 6)? Yes. Do angels have greater strength and abilities than people on earth (Psalm 91:11-13; 103:20; 2 Thessalonians 1:7)? Yes. Focusing on these differing circumstances will undoubtedly address your definition of “higher” or “lower.”

Psalm 8:4-5 presents challenges to biblical interpreters. The question regarding verse four is the identification of the “man” and “son of man” (in many Bible translations). Does that refer only to people? Does it refer to people and also Jesus when he became man and lived a humble life on earth? Does it refer only to Jesus when he became man and lived a humble life on earth? Additionally, verse five can be translated “a little lower than the heavenly beings,” “a little lower than angels” or “a little lower than God.”

What is clear is that the writer to the Hebrews applied Psalm 8:4-6 to Jesus (Hebrews 2:5-9). When Jesus Christ became a man and lived on earth, he did not always or fully use his powers and abilities as the eternal Son of God. Jesus never ceased being God, but he experienced temptation, suffering and death.

Psalm 148 puts all this in perspective. God the Creator is to receive praise from the angels he created (verse two) and the people he created (verses eleven and twelve).

I am a confirmed WELS Lutheran. However, I was raised Catholic. One of the most frequent questions I'm asked is how do Lutherans view Mary, the mother of Jesus. What is the Lutheran teaching regarding Mary? I have gotten conflicting opinions on this subject and would like clarification. Thank you!

We view Mary as the woman God graciously chose to give birth to Jesus Christ. Mary received that honor and privilege only because of God’s grace to her (Luke 1:26-38).

Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary entered this world as a baby without a sinful nature. The Bible does not teach that. The Bible teaches that all people born from a human father and a human mother are conceived and born in sin (John 3:6). Like all such people, Mary was in need of a Savior to forgive her sins. She recognized her sinfulness and need for a Savior (Luke 1:47). Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary did not commit actual sins. The Bible teaches that all people born from a human father and a human mother are guilty of sin (Psalm 14:2-3; Romans 3:23).

Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary remained a virgin after she gave birth to Jesus by not having sexual relations with Joseph. The Bible does not teach that. Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary’s body and soul went to heaven at the end of her earthly life. The Bible does not teach that. Roman Catholic Church teaching is that Mary is in a position to receive and answer prayers that are directed to her. The Bible teaches that any acts of worship, including prayer, are to be directed to God alone (Matthew 4:10; Revelation 22:9). Roman Catholic Church teaching speaks of a “saving office” of Mary. The Bible does not teach that. There is only one Savior and mediator between God and people: Jesus Christ (1 Timothy 2:5-6).

When we stick to what the Bible teaches, we will understand that Mary was a person who received a great blessing from God in being the woman to give birth to the Christ child. From the Bible, we will see that the Savior, Jesus Christ, came to save people from their sins, including Mary.

I hope this clarification is helpful.

Does God reveals his plans for our lives by speaking directly to us, such as in a dream? My daughter's boyfriend, who is also Lutheran, but goes to a non-denominational school, told her he had to break up with her because God spoke to him in his bed (apparently in a dream) and told him they were not meant to be together. She is brokenhearted and confused by his actions.

God of course can do anything. He can communicate to us any way he chooses. The Bible describes instances when God did speak directly to people, through others and in dreams. The fact that God communicated in these ways in the past does not guarantee that God will do so in the future.

What the Bible does say is that “In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son…” (Hebrews 1:1-2). We have God’s full communication to us in the pages of the Old and New Testament. There is no need to look elsewhere for communication from God. In addition, God tells us that dreams can actually be a tool of people who want to mislead and deceive us (Jeremiah 23:25-28).

We have no promise of God that he will communicate to us beyond Scripture. So, we do well to focus on God’s communication to us through the Bible and our communication to him in prayer.

Why are there so many versions of the Bible acceptable for WELS? Shouldn't there only be one, true version of the Bible?

Different Bible translations are acceptable and valuable because there is no perfect translation. There are different ways of faithfully rendering the original biblical languages into English.

You might be interested in the Bible translation resources that are available on the WELS Resource Center. One of the documents discusses “translation theory.” You can access the resources via this link.

Some Adventists use Deuteronomy 31:9-10 and other verses to claim that the "Law of Moses" is different from the Ten Commandments in Exodus 20. I thought that Mosaic Law was a term used for all the Old Covenant laws, including the Ten Commandments. Is there a difference between the 'law of Moses' and the Decalogue in Exodus 20?

We can use the law of Moses, or the Mosaic law, to describe all the laws—including the Ten Commandments—God gave to the Old Testament people of Israel.

The civil and ceremonial laws do not apply to Christians today. God’s moral law applies to all people of every day and age. The Ten Commandments serve as a good summary of the moral law, but even they contain ceremonial law language: the “Sabbath day” in the third commandment and “live long in the land the LORD your God is giving you” in the fourth commandment.

Seventh-day Adventists fail to recognize and teach the freedom from ceremonial laws that New Testament Christians have (Galatians 4:10; Colossians 2:16-17).

What is the Book of Jubilees? Thank you.

The Book of Jubilees belongs to a group of writings called pseudepigrapha. Those writings were never seriously considered to be part of the canon. The Book of Jubilees purports to cover historical events from creation to the Exodus in Moses’ time.

I don't understand how Lutheran theologians reconcile James 3:9 and Gen 9:6 with the idea the image of God is completely lost in the fall. It makes more sense to me that the image became corrupted, as opposed to completely lost. How do WELS pastors interpret James 3:9 and Genesis 9:6?

Being created in the image of God meant that Adam and Eve were holy, they had perfect knowledge of God’s will, and their wills were entirely aligned with God’s will. After the fall into sin, the Bible tells us Adam had a child in his likeness and image, not God’s (Genesis 5:1-3). Since the fall into sin, human beings born of sinful people have entered this world as sinners (Psalm 51:5), enemies of God (Romans 8:7) and people whose natural will is opposed to God’s will (Romans 7:7-23). Despite this natural sinful condition, people still have a natural knowledge of God from creation and their conscience, and they naturally know the basics of God’s law (Psalm 19:1-4; Hebrews 3:4; Romans 2:14-15). While there are some Lutheran theologians who speak of people still being made, in a limited sense, in the image of God insofar as they have intellect and will, it is more consistent with Scripture to say that the image of God was lost through the fall into sin and is restored in Christians.

Ephesians 4:24 instructs us to “put on the new self, created to be like God in true righteousness and holiness.” Colossians 3:10 has a similar directive: “…put on the new self, which is being renewed in knowledge in the image of its Creator.” Genesis 9:6 and James 3:9 are passages that some theologians cite to indicate that after the fall into sin people are born in the image of God in a limited sense. When we understand the image of God especially denoting holiness and loving only that which God loves, then we see those particular passages speaking of the original condition of people, which is no longer the case because of sin.

Certainly, each person receives life from God (Acts 17:25) and each person is the object of God’s love in Christ (John 3:16; 1 John 2:2). Beyond those blessings is the working of the Holy Spirit in people’s hearts through the gospel, connecting them to Jesus Christ and the salvation he won. In Christians the image of God is being restored (2 Corinthians 3:18; Ephesians 4:24; Colossians 3:10), and it will be fully restored when Christians leave this world of sin (Psalm 17:15; 1 Corinthians 13:9-12; 1 John 3:2)

I have recently read articles and videos saying that no one knows who wrote the gospels - that there was no way Matthew, Mark, Luke and John could have written them. They even stated that they were not even written by eyewitnesses. They had a lot of info to back this up. Please tell me this is false.

This is false. Without knowing which articles you read and videos you saw, I can say that the content reflects the historical-critical method of biblical interpretation. That method rejects the verbal inspiration of the Bible. So, if people reject the truth that the Holy Spirit inspired Matthew, Mark, Luke and John to write the books of the Bible named after them, they have to come up with an alternative.

The alternative is a confused mess that allows “scholars” to pick and choose what they want to accept as being from God. The alternative theorizes that oral stories about Jesus developed first. Eventually, people put those stories into print. Finally, editors—in the second century A.D.—put the gospels in finished format.

The apostle Peter spoke for all the apostles when he wrote: “For we did not follow cleverly devised stories when we told you about the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ in power, but we were eyewitnesses of his majesty. He received honor and glory from God the Father when the voice came to him from the Majestic Glory, saying, ‘This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased.’ We ourselves heard this voice that came from heaven when we were with him on the sacred mountain” (2 Peter 1:16-18).

Who, or what is "spirit", when you refer to "body, soul, and spirit"?

While there are some who believe that human beings consist of three distinct parts—body, soul and spirit—the Bible most often describes people as consisting of two parts: body and soul/spirit. The Bible most often uses “soul” and “spirit” interchangeably.

Overall, the Bible uses “soul” in relationship to the body, while it uses “spirit” in a person’s relationship to God.

Does 2 Thessalonians 2:15 contradict Sola Scriptura (Scripture alone)?

Not at all. The Greek word that the apostle Paul used in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 (and 3:6) means “that which is handed down.” In 2 Thessalonians 2:14 Paul reminded the Thessalonian Christians that God had called them to faith through the gospel message. The teaching of the gospel is that on which the Thessalonians were to stand and hold fast to (2 Thessalonians 2:15).

Translations like the 2011 NIV include a footnote for 2 Thessalonians 2:15 and 3:6 – “or tradition(s).” The Greek word that Paul used in those verses can mean tradition, depending on the context. We find that meaning, for example, in Matthew 15:3, 6. Because context determines the meaning of words, “that which is handed down” in 2 Thessalonians 2:15 and 3:6 is clearly the gospel teachings of the apostle Paul to the Thessalonians and not human pronouncements or church traditions.

The Bible consistently teaches Sola Scriptura (Scripture alone) – Ephesians 2:20.

Can you explain in Luke 14:26-27 if Jesus is actually telling us that we must hate our father and mother, wife and children, brother and sister and even self in order to be his disciple?

The Greek word for “hate” in that verse is one that the New Testament uses many times, in different contexts, to express “strong dislike for” or “hostility toward” someone.

Other parts of Scripture can help us understand what Jesus is saying in those verses. The fourth commandment instructs children to love and honor their parents (Exodus 20:12; Ephesians 6:1-2). The Bible tells us that hating others is sinful (1 John 3:15). Jesus tells us to not to return hatred with hatred but, “Love your enemies, do good to those who hate you” (Luke 6:27).

So, what can Jesus mean with those words in Luke 14:26-27? He is using striking language to tell us that he comes first in life. That is the heart of the first commandment, isn’t it? No one, not even our parents, is to occupy the top spot in our hearts. No one, not even self, is to be the number one love of our lives. While we are to love all people, including obviously family members, we are to love God most of all. Jesus said, “Anyone who loves their father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves their son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me. Whoever does not take up their cross and follow me is not worthy of me” (Matthew 10:37-38).

The wider context of Scripture informs us that “hate” in Luke 14:26-27 means “to love less.” We are to love our family members, but we are to love our heavenly Father, our brother Jesus and the Holy Spirit first and foremost.

What difference does it make as to how long it is before Christ returns if we are predestined by God to be saved or not be saved? I have read many times that God's efforts to save as many souls as possible before his return is of utmost importance to him. That does not jibe in my (little) mind. Is it that some predestined souls may not even be born yet or have not had the time or opportunity to repent ? Maybe my understanding of predestination is all wrong. To be honest, I have a problem with the whole predestined plan. Why would my neighbor be going to heaven and not me? What would make her any better in God's eyes than me (considering we share the same beliefs)? I always think of Job and how he lost everything in the contest between God and the devil. God may have given him back everything he lost and more, but what about his family members? I understand his wife was against God but were they all non-fearing of God? Strike down my child today but give me another and all should be good again? I am totally confused. Also are WELS churches the only church predestined to live with God in heaven or are others included? I mean no disrespect. Please help me to understand.

We are not predestined by God to be saved or not be saved. The doctrine of predestination or election is God’s gracious election to faith and salvation. That election took place in eternity (Ephesians 1:4-6; Romans 8:29-30). There is no election to damnation. People are to blame for their damnation (Jeremiah 15:6; Matthew 23:37).

The doctrine of election underscores the grace of God. There was nothing in people that moved him to elect them to faith and salvation. All people are naturally sinful and enemies of God (Psalm 51:5; Romans 8:7). God’s grace alone is the reason for his election of people to faith and salvation.

While the doctrine of election challenges our minds, it is intended to comfort our hearts. If any part of our salvation were up to us, there would be reason for uncertainty. More than that, we would be doomed. The Bible teaches that our salvation is God’s work—from beginning to end. That beginning took place in eternity. After our lives on earth began, God saw to it that we came into contact with his gospel so the Holy Spirit could create saving faith. The doctrine of election means that our lives on this earth will end with saving faith in our hearts. Election, conversion, justification, preservation in the faith—all that is God’s work, and God’s work makes our salvation certain and sure.

When it comes to Job’s children, the Bible does not specifically speak of their relationship to God. Job chapter one describes Job as a devout and conscientious parent who cared deeply for his children. It would be easy to picture Job teaching his children the one true faith, but of course Job could not believe for his children; faith is a personal matter. Since we do not know the outcome of Job’s children, we leave them in the hands of God.

Regarding your last question, WELS does not maintain that it alone is the kingdom of God. Recall what you confess in the Apostles’ Creed. You believe in “the holy Christian Church, the communion of saints.” That Church consists of people throughout the world who believe in Jesus Christ as their Savior and trust only in him for their salvation. We state in This We Believe: “All people who believe that Jesus is their Savior from sin are members of the holy Christian church, regardless of the nation, race, or church body to which they belong.”

You might benefit from “Predestination,” a book from Northwestern Publishing House. Your church library may also have a copy.

I cannot unravel a mystery like election/predestination for you, but I hope things are a little bit clearer.

I'm interested to know more about the Pharisees. I understand that they were Bible scholars. How did this group develop (where did they come from) and what happened to them after the resurrection?

There is much that could be written in response to your question. As the information would be too much for this question and answer forum, I’m going to point you to a very readable paper from the Wisconsin Lutheran Seminary Essay File. The paper is “The Pharisees: An Old Religious Fraternity.”

The paper answers these questions: “Where’d they come from? What’d they do in Jesus’ ministry? Are they still around today? How do we deal with their errors?” This link will provide you with access to the paper. (When you land on the new page, click on “View/Open” on the left side of the screen.)

Is Matthew 28:19 considered a command?

Jesus’ words in Matthew 28:19 (“Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit…”) form a general command to his followers of all time. Jesus’ words indicate what the mission of his church is to be.

Help me understand the various biblical uses of bless, blessing, and blessed (including if there's a difference in the one-syllable and two-syllable pronunciations). Correspondingly, what is the difference of God blessing us and our blessing God? And, growing up in the WELS I learned the common table prayer, "Come, Lord Jesus," yet it recently occurred to me that I'm not certain about the meaning of "and let this food to us be blessed." In the movie musical "The sound of Music" Maria offers this table prayer (or something very similar), "Dear Lord, For what we are about to receive may we be truly thankful. Amen." Is that another way of saying the aforementioned phrase?

When it comes to our actions toward God, “bless” means “to praise.” The meaning of a verse like Psalm 103:1 becomes clear when we compare the King James Version (“Bless the Lord, O my soul”) to other Bible translations that state: “Praise the Lord, O my soul.”

When it comes to God’s actions toward us, “bless” means “to bestow good.”

In the common table prayer we are asking God to use the food we are about to receive for the nourishment and strengthening of our bodies.

In the prayer from the movie that you cited, the request we make of God is that he would lead us to be thankful for the food he has provided.

“Blessed” as a one-syllable or two-syllable adjective (as in Matthew 5:3-11) describes children of God enjoying his love.

So, as blessed people of God, we bless the Lord.

What does Jesus mean in Matthew 7:6 when he says, "Do not give dogs what is sacred; do not throw your pearls to pigs"?

God’s word is holy. It is precious—much more valuable than expensive gems and stones.

God’s will is that his people share his word with others.

The result of sharing God’s word is that some people believe it through the power of the Holy Spirit, while others reject it.

Sometimes people reject the holy and precious word of God vehemently and blasphemously. In such instances, we “do not give dogs what is sacred” and we “do not throw…pearls to pigs.”  We move on and share the word of God with others.

I was reading through the Q & A and came across the following as a portion of your answer to someone.... “He [the Lord Jesus] will punish those who do not know God and do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus." Since the gospel is all about what God has done to save us and it is not about anything we do, what does it mean to "obey the gospel"? Thank you.

The apostle Paul’s inspired words from 2 Thessalonians 1:8 can certainly strike us as sounding strange. His words describe people who reject the gospel of Jesus Christ. 1 Peter 4:17 contains the same message.

In Acts 26:19 the apostle used similar language when he spoke of God giving him faith to believe the gospel: “I was not disobedient to the vision from heaven.”

What do we do when people tell us that the story of Adam and Eve, the flood, the ten commandments and Moses were written in books before the Bible was even written?

We can point people to Jesus’ own testimony that Moses was the inspired writer of the narratives you mentioned. Here are some Bible passages you can include in your response: Matthew 8:4; 19:8; Mark 7:10; 10:3-5; 12:26; Luke 2:22; 5:14; 16:29-31; 24:27; 24:44; John 5:46; 7:19.

What does Mark 4:25 mean?

Jesus repeated his words in Mark 4:25 (“Whoever has will be given more; whoever does not heave, even what they have will be taken from them.”) in different contexts (Matthew 7:2; 13:12; 25:29; Luke 19:26).

The common thread of meaning concerns faithful use of God’s gifts. God promises to bless faithful Christian management and use of his blessings.

In the context of Mark 4:25, God’s blessings are connected to a faithful use of his word.  “Consider carefully what you hear,” he continued. “With the measure you use, it will be measured to you—and even more” (Mark 4:24).

When you and I use God’s word faithfully, we can expect the Holy Spirit to use it to nurture and strengthen our faith, and to increase the fruit of the Spirit (Galatians 5:22-23) in our lives.

On the other hand, when people do not use God’s word by reading it or hearing it, the time will come when it will be taken from them.

All this is reason why Jesus said, “If anyone has ears to hear, let them hear” (Mark 4:23).

My daughter has challenged us - which Bible is the correct Bible? There seem to be so many interpretations/versions out there.

While God inspired the writers of the books of the Bible in their original languages (2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21), inspiration does not apply to Bible translators. That means that we cannot speak of a “correct Bible” as if there is only one accurate Bible translation in English.

There is certainly no perfect Bible translation, but there are reliable and accurate Bible translations that render the original languages of Hebrew/Aramaic and Greek into English.

You might be interested in reading a few articles from the WELS Resource Center that provide an overview of several Bible translations. This link will take you to those articles.

Why in Genesis 22 does God refer to Isaac as Abraham's only son if Abraham already had Ishmael?

You ask an interesting question. Previously in Genesis, Ishmael is called Abraham’s son (for example, 17:23-25; 21:11). Ishmael was Abraham’s son through Hagar. Isaac later became Abraham’s son through Sarah (Genesis 21:3). Before he used Old Testament history to make a point to the Galatian Christians, the apostle Paul noted that Abraham had two sons (Galatians 4:22).

In Genesis 21, we learn that Hagar and Sarah could not get along, so Abraham sent Hagar and Ishmael away. That means that Hagar and Ishmael were not at all in the picture when God instructed Abraham, in Genesis 22, to sacrifice his son. That explains God’s command to Abraham: “Take your son, your only son, whom you love—Isaac—and go to the region of Moriah” (Genesis 22:2). The only son around Abraham at this time was Isaac. He was the one involved in the testing of Abraham’s faith.

Why did Christ reply to the rich man that He is no good, when we Christians believe He has never sinned?

You are correct: Jesus never sinned during his earthly life (2 Corinthians 5:21; Hebrews 4:15; 1 Peter 1:19). Jesus was perfect in our place.

I am not sure which Bible reference you have in mind with your question. I am wondering if it could be Jesus’ conversation with the rich man in Mark 10:17-22. In that conversation, Jesus told the man, “No one is good—except God alone” (Mark 10:18).

Jesus was restating the truth of Psalm 14:2-3 and Psalm 53:2-3: all people are sinners. The only one who is good—in every sense of the word—is God. As Jesus is God, his words to the rich man pointed to himself as God and Savior.

I hope I have come close to answering your question.

What does it means in 1 Corinthians 11:7 that woman is the image or glory of man?

It is helpful to look at the verse you cited in its immediate context.

In 1 Corinthians 11:3, God states a principle regarding headship. The following three verses provide applications of that principle that are set in the worship customs of the Christians in Corinth. Then, 1 Corinthians 11:7 lists the reason for those applications: God created woman from man and for man—to be a suitable helper for him (Genesis 2:18). Woman is the glory of man in that sense.

None of this affects man’s or woman’s status before God. Genesis 1:27 states that God created Adam and Eve in his image. Being created in the image of God meant that Adam and Eve were holy, they had perfect knowledge of God’s will, and their wills were entirely aligned with God’s will. Galatians 3:26-28 declares that even though differences exist among Christians, including differences of gender, there is perfect equality among all Christians before God.

In a recent sermon a pastor said "Judas is burning in hell." Judas did commit suicide, Jesus said it would have been better if his betrayer had not been born, and Acts 1:24 implies that Judas may be in hell. Can it be definitively said, from Scripture, that Judas is in hell? Thanks for this resource and your faithfulness in answering the questions for all these years!

There is no Bible passage that states explicitly: “Judas is in hell.” The wording of Acts 1:25 gives reason to believe that Judas died in impenitence and belief when it says that he left his ministry “to go where he belongs.” That is not the kind of wording one would associate with a person who died in saving faith. Also, there is more reason for concern when we keep in mind that “Satan entered Judas” (Luke 22:3) not long before Judas took his life.

— Thank you for your kind words. The Q & A work is a humbling privilege and opportunity to serve the Lord and people.

When was Jesus glorified?

Jesus was glorified when his body and soul were reunited in the tomb on Easter Sunday morning. Phrases in the Apostles’ Creed list other events that are part of the Lord’s state of exaltation: his descent into hell, his ascension, his sitting at the right hand of God the Father and his visible return to the world on the Last Day to judge all people.

Regarding your answer on whether or not animals have souls, I can't believe that it is biblical to say that animals don't have souls. Genesis 1, 2 and 9 refer to animals by the Hebrew word for soul, which is nephesh. The word nephesh is translated into Greek in the Septuagint as psyche, which is also used in the New Testament to refer to soul. The Bible also says that animals have ruach, which is Hebrew for spirit. Surely, animals have souls (and spirits), don't they?

The answer to another question, similar to yours, will offer further explanation.

“The words in the Hebrew of the Old Testament and the Greek of the New Testament that are commonly translated into English as ‘soul’ are somewhat generic words, indicating the non-material part of human beings and other creatures. Their precise meaning at a given place must be drawn from their context in the Bible text and from related statements on the same subject also drawn from the Bible itself. The Bible clearly ascribes to animals a ‘soul’ in the sense of immaterial part of their being, the ‘animating’ quality that makes them a ‘living being’ in their bodies. This frequent use of the term (for mankind or animals) is almost identical with ‘life, breath of life, inner life.’

“Throughout Scripture, however, there is no evidence or hint that animals have an immortal ‘soul/spirit’ that relates or communicates distinctively with God. This quality, with parallel Bible vocabulary words used to indicate it, is limited to mankind. Animals were not created in the image of God, do not bear moral responsibility, do not sin, are never pointed to Christ’s work for forgiveness, are not invited or urged to seek restoration of spiritual and eternal life in Christ, and are never said to face divine judgment, etc.” (The question and answer that you referenced centered on the content of this paragraph.)

Why is the archangel Michael referred to as "Saint Michael" in our writings and hymns?

Your question is very appropriate and understandable. The Christian Church has called the archangel Michael “Saint Michael” or “St. Michael” for centuries.

A saint is someone who is holy in the sight of God (Romans 1:7; 1 Corinthians 1:2). Since the Bible speaks of holy angels (Mark 8:38; Jude 14; Revelation 14:10), “saint” is a word that can be attributed to them. (Not all the angels remained holy – 2 Peter 2:4.)

The minor festival of St. Michael and All Angels provides Christians with an opportunity to praise God for using his holy angels to protect them (Hebrews 1:14).

What did Adam & Eve look like?

We have no way of knowing what Adam and Eve looked like outwardly. We know that God created them in his image (Genesis 1:27), but that speaks of Adam and Eve’s holiness, their knowledge of God’s will and the fact that their wills were entirely aligned with God’s will.

One day we will see Adam and Eve, and then we will have the answer to this question!

How do you reconcile John 10:27-29 with Luke 8:11-15?

In John 10:27-29, Jesus comforts his followers by assuring them that they are safe and secure in his hands. In Luke 8:11-15, Jesus explains that people can fall from faith (v. 13).

The sections of Scripture you cited illustrate how God’s law warns (Luke 8:13) and God’s gospel comforts (John 10:27-29). Because Christians have a sinful nature and a new self, there is reason to hear and pay attention to both messages. If we become complacent in our spiritual lives, there is reason to listen to God’s warning about falling from faith. If we are fearful about the future, there is reason to listen to God’s comforting message of his powerful love.

As far as “reconciling” the message of the law and gospel, Scripture teaches that these doctrines are different but not contradictory. Above all, the law shows our need for a Savior, and the gospel shows us the Savior we have in Jesus Christ.

Recently a family member came to me and said the real number of man is 616 not 666. Not only do I not understand where that came from, but can you explain to me how I would talk with them about that? I don't appear to understand if it is a literal number or figurative. Thank you.

Your family member was referencing Revelation 13:18: “This calls for wisdom. Let the person who has insight calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man. That number is 666.”

Revelation 13:11-18 describes a beast from the earth who is allied with Satan. Among the descriptions of that beast is a number: 666. As 7 is a number in Revelation that involves God, 6 describes the beast as falling short of God. Revelation uses numbers in a figurative sense.

Be aware that the original manuscripts of the books of the Bible are no longer extant. Instead, we have copies and copies of the original manuscripts. The accuracy of the copyists was great, but variants do exist. Revelation 13:18 is one of those places. Most manuscripts favor 666. There are a few manuscripts that have 616.

The People’s Bible commentary on Revelation would offer a more complete explanation of this and many more end-time topics. It is available from Northwestern Publishing House. Your church library may also have a copy.

How do we understand St. Matthew and St. James in their writings as they talk against swearing and oaths ("swear not at all")? On a surface level, it appears all swearing/oaths are not to be practiced by God's people. If I'm not mistaken, I believe the first 300 years of the church held to this as necessary to be obeyed for all Christians. Thanks.

There is no absolute prohibition in the Bible regarding taking oaths. In Matthew 5:33-37 and James 5:12, we find instructions not to swear—using God as our witness to assure people we are telling the truth—needlessly and thoughtlessly. When taking an oath is necessary, we can comply. Jesus’ own example in Matthew 26:63-64 illustrates that.

I am not sure which sources you might be referencing for your thoughts on the early Christian Church’s views toward taking oaths. In general, most Christians have held to the view stated above.

I have a few questions. It appears we do not affirm the Chalcedonian Creed. Is this because of the Mother of God part? Do we affirm Theotokos? I am sure we would in light of Mary being the Mother of Jesus incarnate and only blessed by God but in no other way special in terms of sinful human nature. Finally, in the Athanasian Creed I love it all except this part: "And they that have done good shall go into life everlasting." We are so strong in our confessions in justification through Christ alone, so how can we say that? I understand it says in Matthew, "Those who have done good will rise to live, but those who have practiced evil will rise to be condemned." (EHV) But that is only because of faith in Christ.

We recognize that the Council of Chalcedon (481 A.D.) formulated helpful statements on the person of Jesus Christ. We accept the term Theotokos (“the one who bore God”), since the child born to Mary was Jesus, the Son of God (Matthew 1:23; Luke 1:31-35; 2:11).

The phrase from the Athanasian Creed you cited reflects the language of Scripture regarding God’s judgment of humanity (Matthew 16:27; John 5:28-29; Romans 2:6-10; 2 Corinthians 5:10).

God certainly judges what is in the heart. It is faith in Jesus Christ alone that saves, and it is unbelief that condemns (Mark 16:16). Salvation is entirely God’s doing; we do not contribute to our salvation in any way (Romans 3:28; Galatians 3:11; Ephesians 2:8-9).

Scripture explains that saving faith and condemning unbelief manifest themselves in people’s lives. And so on the last day, the Lord will point out the good works that Christians have done and the sins that unbelievers have committed (Matthew 25:31-46). Those good works of Christians were not the payment for their salvation; the good works were the evidence of Spirit-worked saving faith in Jesus who paid the penalty for their sins. The sins of unbelievers will be singled out because they rejected the only means of forgiveness for their sins.

We could think of the sentence in the Athanasian Creed (“Those who have done good will enter eternal life, but those who have done evil will go into eternal fire.”) this way: “Those who believed in Jesus as their Savior—and saving faith always produces visible fruit—will enter eternal life, but those who rejected Jesus—such people cannot perform good works, nor do they enjoy forgiveness of sins—will go into eternal fire.” Your question illustrates the helpfulness of providing explanatory comments when using the Athanasian Creed in our worship services.

Critics of Christians will often quote the Old Testament as the current law. I would like to be able to direct people to verses or chapters in the Bible that let everyone know this is no longer correct. Where can I start?

Others have shared your experience:  you post a comment on Facebook or another kind of discussion forum on what the Bible says about marriage or homosexuality, and someone else replies:  “Why don’t you stone adulterers while you’re at it?  And why are you wearing clothes made out of two different kinds of material?”  Those questions are usually followed by references to Leviticus or Deuteronomy.

Where do you start with a response?  To begin with, we recognize that while the Bible does not use the terms “civil,” “ceremonial” and “moral” to categorize God’s laws in the Old Testament, there are different kinds of laws in the Old Testament and those terms are helpful in distinguishing the differences among them.

“Civil” laws regulated the nation of Israel.  While the theocracy of Israel was in place, the civil laws were in force.  When God’s Old Testament people ceased being a nation, the civil laws became obsolete.  God’s directive to people in New Testament times is to render obedience to governments, without relaying specific mandates (Romans 13; 1 Peter 2).

“Ceremonial” laws regulated the worship life—and related items—of the people of Israel.   Those laws dealt with, among other things, sacrifices, festivals, the priesthood, diet and (un)cleanness.  It is clear from Scripture that these laws have been abolished.  They had their purpose:  pointing to the promised Messiah.  But once the Messiah came in the person of Jesus of Nazareth, the ceremonial laws were no longer in effect (cf. Galatians; Colossians 2; Hebrews 4-10).  Jesus rendered perfect obedience to the law of God; he was our perfect substitute in life (Romans 10:4).

That leaves us with the “moral” law.  That is often defined as God’s will for all people of all time.  The moral law is every command of God that applies to every person, no matter when or where he or she may live.  People naturally have knowledge of the moral law because God’s law is written in their hearts (Romans 2:14-15).  The Ten Commandments serve as a good summary of the moral law (even though there are references to civil law and ceremonial law in them).

While it would be nice if Old Testament laws were packaged and labeled “civil law” and “ceremonial law,” that is not the case.  Still, we can identify laws that were binding only on Old Testament Israel (the civil and ceremonial laws), and we can identify laws that reflect the moral law in that they direct all people of all time to love God and their neighbor.  God grant you patience and wisdom as you witness to others through social media.

I have an old Bible from grade school that is of no use to me (it has been torn up and written over). Is there a proper, respectful way to dispose of a used Bible?

There are different proper, respectful ways of disposing of a used Bible, but there is no specified way. I have heard and read of people burying their used Bibles and others recycling them so that the pages can be turned into something new and useful (perhaps another Bible). The approaches to disposing of a used Bible vary, but the approaches are driven by respect for what people are discarding. You can dispose of your old Bible in any number of ways that do not bother you or your conscience.

To me, your concern about what to do with a used Bible reflects a love for the Word of God in general (Psalm 119:105-112). That is a wonderful attitude. God bless you.

Please explain how come sometimes we will stand for the readings during church service and other times we will not. Pastor says, "Out of respect for Jesus' words, please stand." But another reading will be from the Bible, etc. and we will not stand. Thanks!

Christian Worship: Manual, the “handbook” for our hymnal, explains: “The congregation stands for the reading of the Gospel. In the past soldiers put down their weapons and kings removed their crowns when the Gospel was read. Christ—his life, his words of law and gospel, his suffering, his death, his resurrection, his ascension, his assignment to his Church, his promise to return—is the center of the Gospel. The faithful have waited for this moment, this reading. They stand in reverence. ” (pp. 173-174)

Through the gospel lesson Jesus—the Word (John 1), the Word of God (Revelation 19:13)—comes to us. The gospel lesson relays the words and works of Christ. For those reasons, we have retained an ancient practice of showing respect and awe for the Lord and his gospel by standing.

That practice of course falls into the category of adiaphora: those things that God has neither commanded nor forbidden. In Christian freedom we gladly include that posture in our liturgy.

How do I know the Bible is the Word of God?

This is an extremely important question. “Because the Bible says it’s God’s Word” is the short answer, but one that most people won’t be satisfied with. It’s certainly true that the Bible says it is God’s Word (2 Peter 1:20, 21). Just think of how many prophetic books in the Bible begin with, “The word of the LORD came to” or how often the prophets introduce their words with, “This is what the LORD says.”

On the other hand, most people who pose the question want corroboration from an independent, outside source that proves that the Bible is God’s Word. And that, of course, is the problem. What independent outside sources are there? God is one, of course—but the Bible is the only Word of God that we have, and the Bible itself tells us not to expect any other (Isaiah 8:20, Revelation 22:18, 19). God isn’t going to speak from heaven and tell us, “This is my book. Believe it!”

Human beings are the only other possibility. But human beings are hardly unbiased or impartial. As they are by nature, they have every reason not to believe the Bible’s claims about itself. That’s one reason why arguments that believers find persuasive—like biblical prophecies that were clearly and obviously fulfilled, or the fact that the Bible is still around despite centuries of being vehemently attacked and suppressed—don’t necessarily convince unbelievers.

Fortunately, the Bible doesn’t need independent corroboration, because it is self-authenticating. The best advice we can give to someone who is wondering whether the Bible is God’s Word is, “Read it, and you’ll find out.” You’ll discover a book by people you’ve never met, and yet who know you better than you know yourself. And you’ll find them leading you straight to your loving Savior. That is finally the only “proof” that the Bible really needs.

Who wrote the Bible?

Picture this: the CEO of the company is dictating a letter to the secretary. As the CEO speaks, the secretary takes down every word. When the CEO is done, it’s clearly the CEO’s letter.

At the same time, the secretary’s abilities, skills, etc., are sure to show through. For example, if the secretary has poor eyesight, the letter will probably be typed in a larger font. Yet, the letter remains the CEO’s.

Although simplistic, that basically illustrates how we got the Bible. God is the “CEO,” various human writers are the “secretaries.” God gave the writers the exact words which He wanted them to use. The Bible describes it this way: “All Scripture is God-breathed” (2 Timothy 3:16 ). Similarly, “For prophecy never had its origin in the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:21 ). Often in the Old Testament (written about 1400-400 B.C.) you’ll hear God say something like, “Take a scroll and write on it all the words I have spoken to you” (Jeremiah 36:2). These words are God’s words.

Does Jesus agree? Yes! One time Jesus quoted a passage from the book of Psalms. After he did, he made a parenthetical, yet important, remark: “The Scripture cannot be broken” (John 10:35). He was saying, “These words are God’s words.”

The New Testament makes the same claim. One example is found in 1 Thessalonians: “When you received the word of God, which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but as it actually is, the word of God” (1 Thessalonians 2:13). Again, these words are God’s words.

And yet God in mercy chose to work through human writers, more than 35 of them. God used people like Moses, Isaiah, Luke, John, and Paul to write down his words, to be his secretaries, and indeed their personality/talents shine through. For example, Luke was a physician. In his books, we see lots of details, as you might expect from a physician. Paul was a learned man, so the books he wrote are often quite deep, even a bit more difficult to understand.

To summarize, God gave the Bible through human writers; we can learn a few things about them by reading their books. Yet they remained merely the secretaries. The words, finally, are God’s.

Who were the nephilim mentioned in Genesis 6:1-4? Were they offspring of fallen angels or fallen human children of God? And how did the Nephilim survive the Flood?

These verses have generated more than their share of imaginative interpretations and have become a breeding ground for fantastic speculation. Thanks for allowing us to review options and offer comments.

More Bizarre but Less Likely Option

The less plausible yet persistently popular idea is that Genesis 6 is talking about fallen angels (“sons of God”) who impregnated select beautiful women (“daughters of men”) and the demon-human offspring (“the Nephilim”) were giants in stature and accomplishment prior to the Flood. Since Nephilim are spoken of after the Flood (Numbers 13:33), this race of giants somehow survived the Flood (or was restarted by another, post-Flood, demonic invasion with sexual unions with humans).

This scenario, of course, is exciting stuff that grabs people’s attention. Superhuman giants! Hybrid creatures! And, stated honestly, it is grammatically and linguistically possible to arrive at this conclusion through a reading of Genesis 6:1-4. To say this view is utterly impossible or flagrantly contrary to Scripture is perhaps an overstatement.

Less Bizarre and More Likely Option

The less exotic understanding of this section, but one more compatible with everything else revealed in the Bible, is this: Male descendents of Adam and Eve through Seth (the dominant line of believers, “sons of God”) intermarried with attractive female descendents of Cain (the dominant line of unbelievers, “daughters of men”) resulting not only in a deterioration of religious principle, but also in aggressive children who became strong in activity and reputation (“the Nephilim”).

The term Nephilim is most likely derived from the Hebrew nphl (“to fall” or “fall upon”) and refers to “fallen” people (unbelieving rebels against God) or aggressive bullies who “fall on” others (overpowering and tyrannizing them). Nephilim might also derive from the root pl’ (“to be awesome, full of wonder”), and the title then stresses they were people who were strong in physical stature, accomplishment, and reputation – including (if ancient traditions are considered) bullying others as gangsters or mobsters.

These early Nephilim perished in the Flood (Genesis 7:21), but other giants in stature developed in later generations and family branches of mankind. The term Nephilim need not refer to a specific race or tribe, but to people who bore the same general characteristics. Included among them were the Anakim, Rephaim, and Emim mentioned in Numbers 13:33, Deuteronomy 3:11, and 2:10. The Philistine warrior Goliath is probably the best known example of an aggressive giant (1 Samuel 17:4), but there is evidence that people of exceptional size lived in various parts of the world through most of history.

The Preferable Option

One could argue that both options outlined above are possible and the relatively obscure references in Genesis 6 should lead us to advocate no preference between them. One reason we list the second scenario as more plausible is that the idea of angels being capable of, interested in, or allowed by God to impregnate humans is simply foreign to the rest of Scripture. The words of Jesus in Mark 12:24-25 lead us to conclude that angels are not sexual beings the same way humans are. Notions of angel/human hybrids stem from later, non-biblical sources.

There’s a second reason we may prefer the view about believers compromising religious principle through bad choices (including selection of spouses) that often results in ethically challenged progeny. This reason is more theological than textual or exegetical. It fits the pattern so often warned against yet so often repeated in subsequent generations of mankind. This way of deriving the meaning of a text is not adequate in and of itself – but when the conclusion is fully compatible with everything else the Bible says on a given subject, it may be seen as preferable.

Do I have to believe the whole Bible?

Your chest feels as if an elephant is dancing on it. You’re gasping for air. Sweat is glistening on your face. You are in the emergency room of a hospital. Nurses are hooking wires all over your chest. Another nurse is searching for a vein to start an I.V. Another nurse is putting a small pill under your tongue. After looking at the monitor and the EKG tape, the doctor informs you that you are having a heart attack. It’s a frightening scene. Other tests prove that there is a blockage in your heart. The doctor tells you what has happened to your heart and then proceeds to explain what needs to be done to repair your heart so that you can continue to live.

Are you going to believe everything he says? Or are you going to pick and choose what you want to believe and disregard the rest, which could cost you your life? Your life depends on believing everything the doctor tells you.

There are people who believe the whole of the Bible. There are people who don’t believe anything in the Bible. But how can a person believe just some of the Bible? How does a person pick and choose what parts of the Bible are true and what parts are not true? How can a person believe that Jesus died on the cross to take the sins of the world away and yet not believe that Jesus rose from the dead? How can a person believe that Jesus did miracles, but that Jonah could not have spent three days in the belly of a great fish?

What is true and what is not true? The Bible is God’s Word. Not believing some of the Bible will lead to doubting all the Bible. The Bible is not a collection of human ideas and thoughts. The Bible is God’s Word, given word for word by the Holy Spirit to human writers. If any part of the Bible is merely human thoughts, and not God’s Word, then all of God’s Word can’t be trusted. If it is God’s Word, then all of it is true and is to be believed.

We believe the entire Bible is God’s Word and it is true. Our belief is not founded on shaky ground. First, there is more evidence for the documents of the Bible than for any other ancient book. Second, all the writers of the New Testament wrote within the first century of Christ’s birth. They all knew Jesus. Third, even historical facts cited by the writers have been proven to be true. Fourth, God promised that the writers would tell the truth. The Holy Spirit guided them so that they did just that.

We believe all of the Bible because in it God tells us that he loves us sinful human beings so very much that he sent His Son Jesus to live, suffer, die and rise for us so that we could be with him in heaven. That is why God tells us that his words “are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that by believing you may have life in his name” (John 20:31).

God’s Word is all true. You can trust every word of it from beginning to end.

Can you tell me anything about the Book of Enoch?

There are actually three books of Enoch. The second currently exists only in Old Church Slavonic, and theories about its origin place it anywhere from the 1st century BC to the 10th century AD (Nobody knows, in other words). The third is very late, and seems to have been written in Hebrew in Babylonia in the 6th or 7th century AD. I assume you mean so-called “1st Enoch.”

“1st Enoch” dates from the time between the Old and New Testaments (probably no earlier than the fourth century BC). Today the whole thing exists only in a Ge’ez (the language of Ethiopia) translation from Aramaic originals, but many fragments of it were found among the Dead Sea Scrolls.

1st Enoch is a pseudepigraphon–a book attributed to an author who couldn’t possibly have written it–and is said to be the work of Enoch, the son of Jared, who the Bible says “walked with God” (Genesis 5:21-24). It is a collection that includes many different kinds of material, but it is mostly known for its dreams and visions, in which Enoch is said to receive revelations about cosmology, wars between heavenly beings, and the last judgment.

The book seems to have been widely known in the last centuries BC and the first centuries AD. It was not, however, accepted by the Jews at the time of Jesus as part of the canon of Scripture.

What is WELS' position on the importance of believing the entire truth of the Bible? I'm in a WELS congregation where all members believe the basic truths, but many members believe falsely in areas like fellowship, end times, or replacement theology. My experience in WELS churches is that the pastors concentrate on basic law and gospel, but rarely or never address "secondary" areas of doctrine like those above. Since other churches and TV evangelists hit those areas hard, their false teachings propagate widely, including into WELS churches. Is that something that WELS pastors should be more concerned about, and spend more time countering? Thank you for your consideration of my question.

Other areas of this Web site do explain our synod’s position on Scripture.  For example, the following paragraph is from “What the Bible and Lutherans Teach About the Bible:”

“The Bible and Lutherans teach that the Bible is the true word of God. It is inspired by the Holy Spirit. This means that God breathed into the writers the exact thoughts and words they were to write. As a result every statement in the Bible is the truth. One part of the Bible explains another part. It is the only guideline for the faith and life of Christians. We are to read and study it diligently. It clearly teaches all we need to know in order to obtain our eternal salvation.2 Peter 1:21; 1 Corinthians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Timothy 3:15; Luke 11:28; John 5:39.”

The “God and his Revelation” section of This We Believe has a longer treatment on our position toward Scripture.

Scripture is not partly true and partly false.  Scripture is a unit and all of it is truth.  (John 10:35; 17:17)  Christian faith acknowledges that.

The apostle Paul reminded Timothy:  “All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work.  In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who will judge the living and the dead, and in view of his appearing and his kingdom, I give you this charge:  Preach the Word; be prepared in season and out of season; correct, rebuke and encourage—with great patience and careful instruction.  For the time will come when men will not put up with sound doctrine.  Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear.  They will turn their ears away from the truth and turn aside to myths.  But you, keep your head in all situations, endure hardship, do the work of an evangelist, discharge all the duties of your ministry” (2 Timothy 3:16-4:5).

Because the message of the Bible is timeless, those instructions still hold true for pastors today.  Pastors will be able to “correct, rebuke and encourage” and expound on the “whole will of God” (Acts 20:27) because sermon texts, especially those connected to cycles of Scripture readings such as those found in Christian Worship:  A Lutheran Hymnal, provide great variety in content and cover numerous biblical doctrines.  As pastors apply God’s word to contemporary settings, they will have opportunity to address current false doctrines and practices.  If you feel, in your setting, that there could be greater emphasis on addressing contemporary false doctrines, do speak to your pastor.  And certainly pray for your pastor.  Pray that he faithfully proclaims the Word of God—saying no more and no less than what Scripture states.

In 1 Chronicles 22: 7-8 we read that the Lord denied David the right to build a house unto his name because, and I quote: "You have shed blood abundantly and have made great wars: you shall not build a house unto my name because you have shed much blood upon the earth in my sight." If we read Chronicles, it is evident that David had the support and encouragement of the Lord to wage his wars against the enemies of Israel. Is this denial then not a contradiction....? Your insight, please. Thank you.

David definitely did have “the support and encouragement of the Lord to wage his wars against the enemies of Israel.”  Scripture tells us that David “became more and more powerful, because the LORD God Almighty was with him” (2 Samuel 5:10).  When David wondered about waging war against the Philistines, the LORD assured him:  “Go, for I will surely hand the Philistines over to you” (2 Samuel 5:19).

When David first proposed the building of the temple, the prophet Nathan personally endorsed that idea.  Then, the Lord gave Nathan a message to relay to King David.  That message informed David that his offspring, and not he, would build that house for the Lord.  While that news may have been disappointing to David, the Lord had other—good—news for the king:  the Lord would build another kind of house for David.  From David would come a line of kings, including most importantly the Messiah, Jesus Christ, the King of kings.

So were the Lord’s dealings with David contradictory in any way, as you asked?  Not at all.  David carried out his role in protecting Israel from its enemies.  That role involved war and bloodshed.  When it came time to build the temple, the Lord decreed that it was more fitting that a man of peace, and not a man of war, be the one to oversee the building of the temple—a structure that proclaimed peace with God through the sacrifices that pointed to the Messiah and through the ministry of God’s word.  (Solomon’s name is related to the Hebrew word for “peace.”)

Rather than seeing the Lord’s actions as contradictory or inconsistent, we recognize what the psalmist did:  “Our God is in heaven; he does whatever pleases him” (Psalm 115:3).   The Lord had one role for David and another role for Solomon.  Both roles were important and were given by the Lord.

Hello. God promised Abraham (and Isaac and Jacob) that his descendants will become as many as you see the stars in the sky. The covenant was made between God and Abraham to inherit the land of Canaan. My question is that Abraham was considered a righteous man but the Church has replaced the promise: Replacement Theology. What Scriptures support this? Thank you for your time. I hope you will be able to answer my question.

Some people use the term “Replacement Theology” to mean that the Christian Church has “replaced” Israel as God’s chosen people.  Other people use that term to maintain that God cannot possibly abandon Israel and so he will establish an earthly kingdom for Israel during the millennium.

Romans 9-11 helps us understand things correctly.  That section of Scripture explains that the Christian Church is not a replacement of Israel but a continuation of the real Israel.  God explains through the apostle Paul that when it comes to Jews, it is not ancestral heritage that saves (Romans 9:6-8).  It is faith in Jesus Christ, the promised Messiah, that saves.  And so in that part of the Bible God pictures Jews who reject Jesus, the promised Messiah, as branches broken off a tree, and Gentiles who are led to believe in Jesus as the Messiah as branches grafted on to a tree (Romans 11:17-24).  Those who have the faith of Abraham—trusting in the promised Savior, Jesus Christ—are the real Israel (Romans 9:8).

Hello! Where would the present-day Garden of Eden be located? Also, where is the present day place of Jesus' death? Thanks!

Because of the destruction of the world by the flood in Noah’s day, there is only speculation on precisely where the Garden of Eden might have been located.  We simply do not know.

Jesus’ crucifixion would have taken place outside the walls of Jerusalem.  Because we do not know exactly the placement of those walls at the time of the Lord’s crucifixion, there cannot be absolute certainty regarding the identification.  For numerous reasons, many think that the crucifixion site is on the northwest side of Jerusalem.

More important than identifying that site, of course, is knowing what happened on Calvary.  “He himself [Jesus] bore our sins in his body on the tree, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; by his wounds you have been healed” (1 Peter 2:24).  Of that we can be certain.

Where does the Bible refer to losing faith? What is Hebrews 6:4-6 speaking of? There is a conversation among friends wanting Scripture reference that there is danger of losing faith, others believe once saved, always saved. What Scriptures talk about the subject?

Some Bible verses that speak of losing faith are:  Luke 8:13; 1 Corinthians 10:12; Galatians 5:4; 1 Timothy 1:19-20; and, 2 Peter 3:17.

The Greek of Hebrews 6:4-6 can be translated to describe a person who has committed the sin against the Holy Spirit (Matthew 12:31-32) or a person who has fallen from faith but can still be brought back to faith.  You can see those options in the text and the footnote of the NIV, for example.  Regardless of which option in translating we take, it is obvious from that section of Scripture—and elsewhere—that “once saved, always saved” has no scriptural basis.

A non-believing co-worker and I were discussing the beginning. She said, "There must have been a bunch of incest back then." I didn't have a good comeback for that statement. My thoughts led to a larger question, at least for me- if Cain and Abel were the first children, who was Cain afraid of that God put a mark on him? Could God have created others that were just not mentioned in the Bible?

With the creation of only Adam and Eve, marriage between siblings was a necessity in the beginning of time.  As world population increased, that necessity disappeared, and in time God prohibited sexual relations among family members (Leviticus 19).

The Hebrew words of Genesis 4:15 lead more to a translation of “Then the Lord gave a sign to Cain that…” than “Then the Lord put a mark on Cain…”  We do not know how the Lord made it known to Cain that others—especially people in the future—would not take his life.  With that sign the Lord was addressing Cain’s fears about the future not just the present.

In reading Ezra in the Kretzmann Commentary, I see in the introduction the sentence ". . . God's promise to bring His people back to Palestine." The Bible reading refers to the exiles returning to Jerusalem in Judea. Going back further to their entrance into the Land of Canaan, is Canaan considered a part/state/section of Palestine? Some maps show Palestine and others do not. Very confusing.

It can get confusing, but those names, by and large, are pointing to the same territory.  “Canaan” is an early name for that territory, describing where the Canaanites lived.  This was the promised land for Israel.

“Judea” references the southern part of the land of Israel—the area in which Jerusalem is located.

“Palestine” is a later word that approximates the area known as Canaan or Israel.  It is a word that is associated with “Philistia.”  Philistia originally referred to the coastal area region, but then it was broadened to include what we know as Israel.

So, is Canaan a part/state/section of Palestine?  The two names are years removed from one another, but they largely reference the same territory.   I hope this helps.

Jesus explains his use of parables in Mark 4:11-12: "...But to those on the outside everything is said in parables so that they may be ever seeing but never perceiving, and ever hearing but never understanding, otherwise they might turn and be forgiven." Isaiah 6 and Matthew 13 contain similar wording. Doesn't Jesus want people to repent and become believers?

Definitely.  Jesus does want people to repent and become believers through the converting work of the Holy Spirit (1 Timothy 2:3-4).  What we have in the Bible sections you cited is a judgment of God upon hardened hearts.

When people come into contact with God’s word, there can be different results.  People can be brought to faith in Christ or strengthened in the faith, or they can continue in their natural rejection of God’s truths.  God’s word is never spread in vain.  Through Isaiah God made that vividly clear.  “As the rain and the snow come down from heaven, and do not return to it without watering the earth and making it bud and flourish, so that it yields seed for the sower and bread for the eater, so is my word that goes out from my mouth:  It will not return to me empty, but will accomplish what I desire and achieve the purpose for which I sent it” (Isaiah 55:10-11).

The time can come when God delivers a harsh judgment on people in reaction to their unbelief.  That time came in Isaiah’s ministry (Isaiah 6) and Jesus’ ministry (Mark 4).  To people who had their minds made up (and their hearts closed) that Jesus and his ministry were nothing, the Lord would speak in parables.  Through the enlightenment of the Holy Spirit Jesus’ followers would continue to derive understanding from those parables, but Jesus’ enemies would find them void of meaning.

Again, this is a judgment of God upon people’s unbelief; God is reacting to their hardened unbelief.  Since you and I are not privy to judgments like these, we share God’s word to all people in the hope and prayer that the message will be received in Spirit-worked faith.

I was reading The People's Bible for Mark, and as I was reading what the book said on Mark 3:20-30, I read that "when people deliberately identify Christ with Satan and speak of his work as satanic, the Holy Spirit can no longer do his work in their hearts, the work of bringing them to faith in Jesus Christ as their Savior." Does this mean that someone only has to say these words in ordered to commit the sin and be condemned, or does he have to think it in his heart as well? Can a believer who says these words lose his faith and condemn himself even if he did not believe that what he was saying was true?

Just as Christians speak of their faith (confess their faith) on the basis of what is in their hearts, so unbelievers speak on the basis of what is in their hearts.  The sentence you quoted describes people speaking blasphemously about Jesus because of their identification of Christ with Satan.  Such people are not speaking empty words; they are professing what their minds have concluded and their hearts have embraced.  Jesus was not speaking of a Christian’s reckless conversation.  In the context, he was warning against willful and malicious rejection of the gospel against better knowledge.

As Christians, we recognize that there is always room for our faith to grow.  That is why we can identify so easily with the man who said to Jesus, “I do believe; help me overcome my unbelief!”  (Mark 9:24)

I have been told by a Baptist friend of mine that the Bible has only 9 commandments, not ten like WELS teaches. What's up with this?

The Bible does not spell out whether there are nine or ten commandments.  In addition, in the original Hebrew of Exodus 34:28, Moses recorded “ten words” (not “Ten Commandments,” as the NIV translates).  In Exodus 20 there are “words” about idolatry, misusing God’s name, keeping the Sabbath day, honoring parents, murder, committing adultery, stealing, lying and coveting.

Over the years, there have been different ways of numbering the commandments.  The Reformed system is to split what we would call the first commandment into two commandments and to combine what we would call the ninth and tenth commandments into a single commandment.

There is no right or wrong way of numbering or categorizing God’s commandments.  And, of course, much more important than putting a number in front of a commandment is focusing on the content of a commandment.  That content is there to curb wickedness in the world, show us our sins and need for a Savior, and point out how we can use life to say “thank you” to the God who has saved us.

Why have the NIV and ESV translations of the Bible taken certain Bible verses out of the main body of the text and placed them in the footnotes or makes no mention at all of why they are not included in the main body of the text (i.e. Matt. 17:21, 18:11, 23:14; Mark 7:16, 9:44, 9:46; Luke 17:36, 23:17; John 5:4; Acts 8:37). Placing these verses in the footnote section gives the appearance that these verses are in question as to whether or not they are the Word of God. This is troublesome. Can you explain why this is?

The starting point in answering your question is recognizing that none of the original manuscripts of the Bible are extant today.  What we have are copies of copies of copies.  That hand copying of biblical manuscripts over the centuries was extremely accurate, but variants—different words or word forms—exist among the manuscripts.  The variants in the New Testament manuscripts that require attention from those who have biblical language training amount to less than one percent of the text.  And, most importantly, no doctrine of the Bible is uncertain because of variants among manuscripts.

When Bible scholars and Bible translators come upon a passage where ancient manuscripts might differ, as in Mark 7:16, their rule of thumb is to side with the oldest and most widespread manuscripts because they would most likely reflect the content of the original manuscripts.  In the case of the Bible translations you cited, their footnoting of verses not in the text or their footnoting of alternate translations reflects the careful study given to variants and the judgment calls that need to be made.

The subject matter of your question requires a much lengthier answer than I can provide on this forum.  This link will offer you a much longer explanation of “Verbal Inspiration and the Variant Readings.”

When we keep the subject matter of variants in perspective, we can acknowledge—with gratitude and awe—that God has preserved his word to this day.  That is no surprise.  “The grass withers and the flowers fall, but the word of our God stands forever” (Isaiah 40:8).

Since we do not observe the Sabbath day on Saturday because it was part of the Old Testament Law between God and the Israelites, how do we correctly follow the third commandment when it says that the Sabbath is supposed to be on the seventh day of the week?

As New Testament followers of the Lord, we recognize that the Sabbath day laws were part of the ceremonial law and are no longer in effect (Galatians 4:10-11, Colossians 2.16).

For New Testament followers of the Lord, the third commandment focuses our attention exclusively on the word of God and not a day of the week.  That explains why Martin Luther wrote in his Catechism that, for Christians, God’s will in the third commandment is that “we do not despise preaching and his word but regard it as holy and gladly hear and learn it.”  That explanation reflects what Scripture says (Psalm 122:1; Colossians 3:16; Hebrews 10:25).

Why do we use the NIV Bible? It has so many deletions and omissions from the KJV. Why is any other Bible version not allowed?

It is understandable if there are differences between the KJV and the NIV (beyond the updating of the English language).  The KJV is a translation based on the Textus Receptus, a Greek text comprised of biblical manuscripts that dated from around 900 to 1500 A.D.  The NIV based its translation on what is called the UBS text—those manuscripts from 900 to 1500 A.D. plus additional, earlier manuscripts that were from approximately 150 A.D. to 900 A.D.  While there are many years referenced in the previous sentences, don’t get the wrong idea.  There was very precise copying of biblical manuscripts over the centuries.  The differences between the text the KJV used and the text the NIV used amount to less than one-tenth of one percent.  The NIV does not have many deletions and omissions from the KJV.

Other Bible translations are allowed.  Individual congregations determine which translation(s) they will use.  Our synod has never adopted an official Bible translation.  The discussions in our synod the past few years have centered on the use of translations in our publications.

Which languages did Jesus speak, know, and use?

The notice Pontius Pilate had ordered to be placed atop Jesus’ cross can illustrate the different languages Jesus was exposed to in everyday life:  Aramaic, Latin and Greek.  The Jews spoke Aramaic in their homes and in their places of worship.  Latin was the language of the Roman government.  Greek was the international language of the time.  To these languages we would add the language of the Old Testament:  Hebrew, a language with which the Lord would have been very familiar.

It would not have been unusual for Jesus to follow the pattern of the Jews—using Greek in his conversations in public and Aramaic at other times.  There are instances where the gospel writers preserved the Lord’s Aramaic words.  For example:  Mark 5:41; Mark 7:34; Mark 14:36; Mark 15:34.

More important than the languages Jesus utilized in his ministry, of course, is the content of what Jesus said.  Jesus alone has “the words of eternal life” (John 6:68).  We can be thankful that the Holy Spirit reminded the disciples of everything Jesus said (John 14:26) and that he led the gospel writers—and all the writers of the books of the Bible—to write with complete accuracy the truth, God’s truth.  Because of that, we today have the words of eternal life in a language we can understand.

I need a concise explanation of the veracity of Jesus' lineage. Why is Jesus considered to be a true descendant of the House of David?

The genealogies of our Lord in Matthew 1 and Luke 3 state very clearly that Jesus’ human ancestry is traced to King David (Matthew 1: 6; Luke 3:31).  Because the two genealogies list different names in the generations from David to Joseph, it is generally believed that Matthew’s genealogy traces Joseph’s ancestry, while Luke’s genealogy traces Mary’s.

In addition, Luke 2:4 describes Joseph belonging “to the house and line of David.”  As Joseph was Jesus’ legal guardian/parent, Jesus is a legal descendant of David.

Of interest is the acclamation of the Palm Sunday crowds:  “Hosanna to the Son of David!”  (Matthew 21:9).  That was praise Jesus accepted because the title was accurate.

Jesus was not from Judah. He was a Galilean. How can Jesus be classified as a Jew, when He was so critical of Jews?

Matthew 1:2-3 and Luke 3:33 identify Jesus as a descendant of Judah.  Luke 2:4 tells us that “Joseph also went up from the town of Nazareth in Galilee to Judea, to Bethlehem the town of David, because he belonged to the house and line of David.”  Jesus was born in “Judea.”  His upbringing took place in Nazareth, in Galilee.

Jesus was critical of the Jewish religious leaders of the day because they were misrepresenting God and his Word.  That was disastrous for people who listened to and believed the message of those leaders.  Jesus made it clear that his teachings were truthful and liberating (John 8:32), because he is the promised Messiah.

My wife says that she was taught in our schools (WELS) that the black people came from Noah's son Ham. Did the Blacks come from Ham? Thank you.

The Bible does not answer specifically how from one man, Adam, we today have people with differing physical characteristics.  Scripture simply tells us that we have a common ancestor.  When the apostle Paul spoke at a meeting of the Areopagus in Athens, Greece, he said this about God and Adam:  “From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth…” (Acts 17:26)

Since the world’s population dwindled to eight individuals during the flood of Noah’s time, human beings can additionally look to Noah’s sons as ancestors.  “These are the clans of Noah’s sons, according to their lines of descent, within their nations.  From these the nations spread out over the earth after the flood” (Genesis 10:32).

While we may not have the answer to how human beings became diverse in physical characteristics, God’s love for human beings is not a mystery.  He promised a Savior for all people.  Jesus Christ carried out his redeeming work for all people.  The Holy Spirit calls people from all nations to saving faith in Jesus.  The result is that the people in heaven whom the apostle John saw were “from every nation, tribe, people and language” (Revelation 7:9).

Our Bible Study Group is studying I Timothy. Chapter 1:20 says, Hymenaeus and Alexander were "handed over to Satan." Is there any record of them returning to the faith? Thank you for any information you may have.

The Bible is silent on whether or not there was a happy ending to the story of their earthly lives.  Their excommunications, of course, were carried out with the fervent desire and prayer that they would repent and receive the news of forgiveness in faith (1 Corinthians 5:4-5).  If that happened, they were to be received back into the fellowship of believers (2 Corinthians 2:6-10).

God’s blessings to you and the rest of your Bible study group!

Assuming human differentiation from Adam on (Acts 17:26), and the probability that 7/8ths of what makes people different today came from the four women on Noah's Ark, could one speculate that Caucasian, Asian and African differences today could have been evident in the wives of Japheth, Shem and Ham, respectively? Wouldn't this help Christian missionaries today make the point that Bible truth is for all people everywhere?

There is no need for speculation here.  Christian missionaries can tell their audiences that the truth of the Bible is for them because that is the Bible’s very message.  I think of the Lord’s promise to Abram:  “…all peoples on earth will be blessed through you” (Genesis 12:3).  I think of Jesus’ words to Nicodemus:   “For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life” (John 3:16).  I think of Peter’s proclamation of the prophet Joel’s message:  “And everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved” (Acts 2:21).  In the Bible God makes it very clear that his love knows no bounds and that his kingdom consists of believers “from every nation, tribe, people and language” (Revelation 7:9).

Abundantly clear passages like these eliminate the need for speculation on how the Bible’s message might be applicable to people everywhere.  The Bible’s message is for everyone.  Christian missionaries—of every kind—seek to share that beautiful truth with everyone.

Good Friday to Easter Sunday does not equate to three days. Is this a matter of God's timing isn't our timing? "So will the son of man be three days and three nights...." Thank you for your response. I couldn't find it in the archives and Internet articles are doubting the beautiful story of Easter, so I had to get the truth here. Thank you.

 Allow me to pass along the explanation I included in When Christ Walked Among Us.
“Crucified on Friday, raised to life on Sunday.  Three days or two?  The answer depends on one’s culture and that culture’s methods for tracking time.  In the Jewish way of reckoning time, it was three days.  That is because of the way in which Jews determined the beginning and ending point of a day and their understanding that any part of a day equaled an entire day.  Because the Genesis creation account describes the days consisting of evening and morning, the Jews understood that a day began with the evening.  As sunset on Friday marked the beginning of Saturday and the Jews were rushing to remove the bodies from the crosses before twilight, that would mean Jesus’ body was in the grave for a very short time on Friday.  One day.  His body was in Joseph’s tomb all of Saturday.  Two days.  Sunset on Saturday denoted the commencement of Sunday.  Jesus’ body was in the tomb at that point.  Three days.  Part of one day, an entire second day and a part of the third day equaled three days according to Jewish thinking.  ‘On the third day he rose again according to the Scriptures’” (p. 208).

I hope this helps.

What does the Bible mean when it says to keep Jesus' commandments?

Jesus did not come into the world as a second Moses; he came into the world as God’s personal expression of grace and truth, the promised Savior (John 1:17).  By his birth he obligated himself to keep the very law he had given (Galatians 4:4-5).  Jesus did keep the law perfectly for us (John 8:46; Romans 10:4).  He made it very clear that salvation comes through faith in him and not works of the law (John 3:16).

Still, in his preaching and teaching Jesus did not neglect the law of God.  Rather, he highlighted and often illustrated the moral law:  showing perfect love toward God and other people (Matthew 22:37-39), even sacrificial love toward others (John 13:34).  Re-emphasizing the moral law, along with giving directives such as celebrating the Lord’s Supper (Luke 22:17-20) and baptizing (Matthew 28:19), can be understood as his commands.  Finally, his commands are whatever he prescribed as the way of life for his followers.

Part of Jesus’ mandate to his followers before he ascended into heaven was to teach people everywhere “to obey everything I have commanded you” (Matthew 28:20).  We know from Jesus’ own words that we love him when we do what he commands (John 14:15, 21; 15:14).

It was brought to my attention that Martin Luther added the word "alone" to Romans 3:28. Is this a fact? Thank you.

I will let Martin Luther himself answer that question.  In his “On Translating:  An Open Letter,” written in 1530, he explained his translation of Romans 3:28:  “I knew very well that the word solum [Latin = alone, only] is not in the Greek or Latin text…It is a fact that these four letters s o l a are not there…At the same time…it belongs there if the translation is to be clear and vigorous.  I wanted to speak German, not Latin or Greek, since it was German I had undertaken to speak in the translation.  But it is the nature of our German language that in speaking of two things, one of which is affirmed and the other denied, we use the word solum (allein) along with the word nicht [not] or kein [no]. For example, we say, ‘The farmer brings allein [only] grain and kein [no] money.’

“…This is the German usage, even though it is not the Latin or Greek usage.  It is the nature of the German language to add the word allein in order that the word nicht or kein may be clearer or more complete.” [Luther’s Works, American Edition, Volume 35, 188-189]

Luther acknowledged that the word “alone” or “only” is not in the Greek text, but the idea certainly is.  With that and also the nuances of the German language in mind, he included “alone” in his translation.

Certainly, if we are not saved by our good works or by a combination of faith and good works, then we are saved through faith alone.  That is the consistent message of Scripture (e.g., Romans 3:28; Galatians 3:11; Titus 3:5-6).

Is there a WELS evaluation of "The Message" version of the Bible translated by Eugene Peterson? What I have heard in readings certainly sounds good in English, but I'm wondering if there are other considerations. Thank you!

Do keep in mind that the following information is simply a brief personal assessment of The Message.  WELS does not have an official list of recommended Bible translations.

That being said, The Message is a paraphrase, not what would be understood as a translation.  While a translation can contain the biases of the translators, that can happen even more with a paraphrase.  It is very easy for the person doing the paraphrasing to incorporate into the finished product ideas and shadings that reflect the person’s own faith.  When we understand that The Message is a paraphrase by a (now retired) Presbyterian pastor, we will be interested to see if historic Presbyterian doctrines find their way into his paraphrase.

And so, does his paraphrase indicate consistently that the Lord’s Supper is a holy meal in which Jesus’ body and blood are present in, with and under the bread and wine?  He renders 1 Corinthians 11:26-27 (“For whenever you eat this bread and drink this cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.  So then, whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of sinning against the body and blood of the Lord.”) this way:  “What you must solemnly realize is that every time you eat this bread and every time you drink this cup, you reenact in your words and actions the death of the Master. You will be drawn back to this meal again and again until the Master returns. You must never let familiarity breed contempt.  Anyone who eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Master irreverently is like part of the crowd that jeered and spit on him at his death.  Is that the kind of “remembrance” you want to be part of?”  I do not see the real presence of the Lord’s body and blood in that paraphrase.

Again, thinking of historic Presbyterian doctrines, does his paraphrase indicate that people really can fall away from the faith?  Jesus’ explanation of the Parable of the Sower teaches:  “Those on the rocky ground are the ones who receive the word with joy when they hear it, but they have no root.  They believe for a while, but in the time of testing they fall away” (Luke 8:13).  The Message turns the truth of that verse into this:  “The seeds in the gravel are those who hear with enthusiasm, but the enthusiasm doesn’t go very deep. It’s only another fad, and the moment there’s trouble it’s gone.”  “Enthusiasm?”  “Fad?”  Or faith?  Faith that is lost?  1 Timothy 1:19-20 speaks of people who “have suffered shipwreck with regard to their faith,” who have abandoned the truth.  The Message says those people “made a thorough mess of their faith.”

Beyond these two items, here are a couple of other concerns.  Ephesians 2:8-9 teaches beautifully that salvation, including the gift of faith that joins us to Jesus and brings us salvation, is entirely God’s doing.  The Message says:  “Saving is all his idea, and all his work. All we do is trust him enough to let him do it. [My emphasis] It’s God’s gift from start to finish! We don’t play the major role.”  Titus 3:5-6 “[God] saved us through the washing of rebirth and renewal by the Holy Spirit whom he poured out on us generously through Jesus Christ our Savior” becomes “He gave us a good bath, and we came out of it new people, washed inside and out by the Holy Spirit.”  Time constraints prevent me from sharing more examples where this paraphrase falls short of reliable Bible translations.

People using The Message will need to understand that it is a paraphrase—a retelling of what is in the original Bible languages from the viewpoint of the author.  If it is going to be used, it is safest to have a reliable translation alongside it.

Daniel Chapter 10 and 12 mentions the angel Michael. In other sections of the Bible, Michael is mentioned too, often in relation to the end times (Jude 9, Revelation 12:7-9). Is Michael only an archangel, or could Michael be another name for Christ?

Michael is identified in the Bible as an archangel.  Over the years some have suggested that the angel in the Daniel passages could be references to Christ.  They have done so on the basis that angel literally means “messenger” and Michael means “Who is like God?” or “One who is like God.”  That approach is problematic because Daniel 10:13 speaks of Michael as “one of the chief princes.”  That suggests that the archangel has peers.  Jesus does not.

The Jehovah’s Witnesses go in a different direction entirely.  They falsely claim that Jesus first existed as Michael, a created angel, and then became a human being.  Jesus is the eternal Son of God (John 1:1-2).

Whenever we see paintings, sculptures or pictures of Jesus in books or on TV, he is always physically depicted in the same manner. He is usually shown with long, dark brown hair, with a beard. Do we have any reason to believe that this is what he actually looked like?

The Bible is silent on Jesus’ physical appearance.  Secular history does not provide any help either.  That means that “artistic license” is appropriate, as artists try to portray a man, born of a Jewish woman, living in the first century A.D.

In spite of not knowing Jesus’ physical appearance, the imaginations of artists definitely have impacted people and influenced their thinking.  Generations of Christians grew up with Warner Sallman’s artwork guiding their thoughts as to what Jesus looks like.  Following the genre of artists of the past, Sallman’s artwork cast Jesus in very serious poses.  In recent years, artists have portrayed a more emotional Jesus—picturing him with a subtle smile, a wide grin and even laughing.

While we have questions now about Jesus’ physical appearance, those questions will be answered one day.  When our lives on earth come to an end, we will see our Lord face-to-face (Psalm 17:15; 1 Corinthians 13:12; 1 John 3:2).  That is a sight that will never end!

First, thank you for this forum. You are doing invaluable work! Can you help me understand the concept of sacrifice? There are many scriptural references to sacrificing animals, and Jesus is called the Lamb of God, because he was a sacrifice. I have trouble understanding all this, because as a modern American, I have no connection to the idea of an animal sacrifice being pleasing to God. In fact, the opposite seems true. I see God as more likely to help a "bird with a broken wing" than to take pleasure in its sacrifice. Because I don't understand this, I don't understand why God would want or accept the sacrifice of His Son. Can you explain it, or suggest some readings that might help?

Thank you for your kind words.  I can appreciate your question because you and I are so far removed from the time and culture of the Old Testament sacrificial system.  The animal sacrifices that God required from his followers beginning in Moses’ day underscored some very important truths.

Sin is serious.  “The one who sins is the one who will die” (Ezekiel 18:20).

God is holy and cannot overlook sin.  (Leviticus 19:2; Galatians 3:10)

God’s love spares people the punishment they deserved.  Animal sacrifices taught the people that a Substitute would suffer their punishment.  (Isaiah 53:4-6).

The quality of the sacrificial animals (Exodus 12:5; Leviticus 22:21) pointed ahead to Jesus, the perfect Lamb of God (John 1:29; 1 Peter 1:19), who would lay down his life for the sins of the world.

It can be difficult to connect “to the idea of an animal sacrifice being pleasing to God,” as you wrote.  That is because God’s ways and thoughts are so different than ours (Isaiah 55:8-9).  What God did with Old Testament animal sacrifices was present his followers with ongoing vivid images of law and gospel:  showing them the seriousness of their sins and the forgiveness of sins from a Substitute, the Messiah, Jesus Christ.

You asked about reading material on this topic.  I can heartily recommend “Connecting Sinai to Calvary,” available from Northwestern Publishing House.  The author does a masterful job of explaining, among other things, the significance of Old Testament sacrifices.

Regardless of our ability to relate to the Old Testament animal sacrifices, we can revel in the truth that “we have been made holy through the sacrifice of the body of Jesus Christ once for all” (Hebrews 10:10).  John 3:16 explains so beautifully why God sacrificed his Son.

What is the difference between soul and spirit?

While there are some who believe that human beings consist of three distinct parts—body, soul and spirit—the Bible most often describes people as consisting of two parts:  body and soul/spirit.  The Bible most often uses “soul” and “spirit” interchangeably.

Overall, the Bible uses “soul” in relationship to the body, while it uses “spirit” in a person’s relationship to God.

Where did Cain's wife come from? The Bible does not mention any other daughters born to Adam and Eve before Cain was married. Maybe it just doesn't mention them? Or did God just create them?

The Bible does not answer your question specifically, but provides information for us to know the likelihood of the situation.  All people are descended from Adam and Eve (Acts 17:26), who had other children in addition to Cain, Abel, and Seth (Genesis 5:4).  Cain would have married a relative of his.  The prohibition against marrying close family members did not come until much later in history and was formalized in the Mosaic regulations (Leviticus 18-20).

Is there any actual reason to believe Christianity is true? You can quote Bible verses to me all you want, but I don't think I believe the Bible any longer, so it will do no good. I read Paul saying in 1 Corinthians 15 that the entire Christian faith is based upon an event in history-the resurrection of Jesus. Is there any reason to believe that this event actually occurred? Keep in mind I don't take the Bible as inspired, or even generally reliable. Thank you.

The Bible is the source of Christian faith and doctrine, so I am severely limited in my response if I cannot cite it.  Still, your questions tell me that you are willing to hear me out even as I reference some Bible passages.

I cannot convince you that Christianity is true and that the Bible is God’s word, but God can and God does—through his word.  God’s word is “alive and active” (Hebrews 4:12).  God’s word is “truth” (John 17:17).  God’s word is truth because he always speaks the truth (Numbers 23:19; Titus 1:2).  God the Holy Spirit works through his word to change hearts and lives, and the history of the world provides abundant evidence of the Spirit’s workings.

Jesus’ resurrection is vitally important to the Christian faith.  As you noted, 1 Corinthians 15 lists individuals who saw the risen Christ with their own eyes.  Included in that list is a group of more than 500 individuals to whom Jesus showed himself alive.  Christian faith regards that information about Jesus’ resurrection and his post-resurrection appearances as true and accurate.

Your questions tell me that you once had different beliefs about the Bible (“I don’t think I believe the Bible any longer.”).  I would be curious to know what happened in life or your life so that your beliefs changed.  That is something that requires a longer conversation—and one that takes place face-to-face.  So, I would really encourage you to talk with one of our pastors.  He is in a much better position than I to hear your story and provide specific guidance from God’s word.  If you are interested in reading material beyond the Bible, you might consider taking a look at On Being a Christian.

Above all, I encourage you to turn to the tool that God uses to change hearts and minds and lives:  his word.  Start reading through one of the gospels—Matthew, Mark, Luke or John—and see Jesus, your perfect substitute, in action.  Pray that God’s Spirit leads you to see and confess the truth.  I will offer that same prayer.  God bless you.

I have a family member who is a Messianic Jew. One of the passages they use to support not eating pork, worshiping on Saturday and keeping all the OT festivals is Matthew 5:17-19 (among others). How do we interpret these verses in relation to our New Testament Christian freedom?

The Bible teaches very clearly that New Testament followers of the Lord Jesus are no longer bound to the Old Testament civil and ceremonial laws.  Passages like Galatians 4:9-11 and Colossians 2:16-17 underscore that freedom.

So what is the meaning of Matthew 5:17-19?  In that part of the sermon on the mount, Jesus explained to his followers that he came into the world to fulfill all that the Old Testament (the Law and the Prophets) had prophesied about him, the Messiah.  In the words of verse 18, Jesus stated what he did elsewhere, that “Scripture cannot be set aside” (John 10:35).  In verse 19 Jesus explains the seriousness of teaching contrary to his word.

The “commandments” of verse 19 need to be understood in the light that Old Testament civil and ceremonial laws (dealing with such things as eating pork, worshiping on Saturday and keeping all the Old Testament festivals) were limited in time.  The tearing of the temple curtain in Jerusalem at the time of Jesus’ death (Matthew 27:51) illustrated that.  Old Testament civil and ceremonial laws are no longer part of the “commandments” of which Jesus spoke in verse 19.  This is where the passages from Galatians 4 and Colossians 2 enter the picture again.  In fact, the entire book of Galatians is a clarion call for Christians to recognize their freedom in Christ:  “It is for freedom that Christ has set us free. Stand firm, then, and do not let yourselves be burdened again by a yoke of slavery” (Galatians 5:1).

Isaiah 55:10-11 is often used to justify the claim that "there must be at least some saved souls even in false churches, as long as the Gospel is taught there." But God uses His Word for many purposes, including fulfillment of promise (Matthew 24:14), teaching, rebuking, correcting, and training in righteousness (2 Timothy 3:16). Given that we don't know God's specific purpose for His Word in any given church at any given time, isn't it more correct to say that we simply don't know if there are any saved souls in any given case like this, and leave that knowledge to God?

I do not know to whom you attribute the quotation that is connected to Isaiah 55:10-11.  Rather than proving the existence of believers even in false churches, Isaiah 55:10-11 illustrates in figurative language that God’s word is not spread without effect; there will be always be results when God’s word is proclaimed.  Either people will be brought to faith in Christ or strengthened in the faith, or people will be hardened in their unbelief.

A Bible verse like Romans 10:17 (“Consequently, faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word about Christ. “) tells us that we can expect to find God’s kingdom wherever the gospel of Jesus Christ is proclaimed in truth and purity, and the sacraments are administered according to the gospel of Jesus Christ.

Finally, as you indicated, God alone knows who belongs to his kingdom because God alone can see what is in the heart (1 Samuel 16:7; Luke 17:20-21; 2 Timothy 2:19).

Where in the Bible does it talk about our money not being ours, but that it is a loan from God? And we should help especially family?

There is a clear and consistent message throughout the Bible that God is the owner of all things and that he entrusts his possessions to people with the directive that they be faithful in managing those possessions.  Here is a sampling of Bible passages on that subject.

Deuteronomy 8:17-18 – “You may say to yourself, ‘My power and the strength of my hands have produced this wealth for me.’ But remember the LORD your God, for it is he who gives you the ability to produce wealth…”

1 Chronicles 29:14 – “’But who am I, and who are my people, that we should be able to give as generously as this? Everything comes from you, and we have given you only what comes from your hand.’”

Psalm 24:1 – “The earth is the LORD’s, and everything in it, the world, and all who live in it.

Haggai 2:8 – “‘The silver is mine and the gold is mine,’ declares the LORD Almighty.”

Matthew 25:14-30 – (The parable of the talents)

1 Corinthians 4:2, 7 – “Now it is required that those who have been given a trust must prove faithful…“For who makes you different from anyone else? What do you have that you did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as though you did not?”

1 Peter 4:10 – “Each of you should use whatever gift you have received to serve others, as faithful stewards of God’s grace in its various forms.”

1 Timothy 5:8 addresses your “especially family” question.  “Anyone who does not provide for their relatives, and especially for their own household, has denied the faith and is worse than an unbeliever.”

Your questions about the faithful management of God’s possessions are good reminders that the motivation for such faithful management is gratitude for the sacrificial love of Jesus Christ:  “For you know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sake he became poor, so that you through his poverty might become rich.”

How old was Mary when Jesus was born? I don't find anything in the Bible on this.

Your search in the Bible did not yield the information you were seeking because the Bible does not provide that information.  We do not know how old Mary was when Jesus was born.  The Bible simply describes her as a “virgin.”

While Bible commentators have theorized how old she may have been at the time of Jesus’ birth and artists have portrayed her at different ages in their paintings, we do not know her age when Jesus was “born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4).

I had a conversation with a Christian recently (not sure of her denomination) who has two beliefs for which I can't find a scriptural basis. One is that angels are sent by God, but we must ask for their help before they will intervene in our lives - almost as though they are just standing by, waiting to be called up by us. The other is that by blessing a building and writing a series of numbers and letters above an entryway with chalk (which she does annually) she can "keep the Devil out." Are these some kind of distortion of Scripture, or am I just uninformed? Thank you.

Angels are “ministering spirits sent to serve those who will inherit salvation” (Hebrews 1:14). While God can certainly direct his holy angels to action in our lives as an answer to our prayers, there is nothing in the Bible that says “we must ask for their help before they will intervene in our lives.” And aren’t we glad that is the case? If we always had to ask for their help, would we remember to ask? Would we be timely in remembering to ask for help before danger struck? We enjoy many blessings of God even before we ask for them (Isaiah 65:24). God tells us he is the one who orchestrates his holy angels into action for the good of his children (Psalm 91:11).

Regarding your second question, the letter and number writing can easily come across to someone as a superstitious practice. How do we “keep the devil out” of our lives? We cannot eliminate him entirely from our earthly lives, but we do have this instruction and promise: “Resist the devil, and he will flee from you” (James 4:7). We resist Satan with the spiritual armament God provides (Ephesians 6:10-18). The great Reformation hymn reminds us how powerful that weaponry is in the battle against Satan: “One little word can fell him” (Christian Worship 200:3).

I have heard from a co-worker about a reference called The Dake's Bible and I'm wondering if anyone has read it or has seen it. I guess it has the English and original biblical text (Greek, Hebrew, not sure if it has any Aramaic translation), which gives deeper insight to the word of God. I would like to purchase it but I want to make sure it's a legitimate source. I trust WELS pastors because I know how well educated you are in God's word and in Greek and Hebrew (I went to MLC and attended WELS churches most of my life). Thank you for your time and I look forward to any insight you have for me! Your sister in Christ.

Rev. Finis Jennings Dake was the author of The Dake Annotated Reference Bible. The publishers of that work describe him and his work this way: “Dake was Pentecostal in terms of his spiritual experience and beliefs, and The Dake Annotated Reference Bible has been dubbed ‘The Pentecostal Study Bible.’ While such a label accurately assesses Dake’s position when dealing with relevant portions of Scripture, it is somewhat limiting as well. Dake’s true passion was providing a dispensationally systematic perspective on biblical prophecy. “

That description is enough for me to say that you will want to look elsewhere for a reliable study Bible.

The Lutheran Study Bible would serve your purposes well, as would the extensive The People’s Bible series.

God loves the whole world. John 3:16: "For God so loved the world..." So how can he hate Esau? Malachi 1:3 "but Esau I have hated."

John 3:16 does beautifully describe the gospel message: the message of God’s love for sinners. What kind of God would love sinners? The only God, the God who “is love” (1 John 4:16).

And yet, the Bible tells us that the God of love who loves sinners also hates sin and hates sinners (Psalm 5:5). That is the message of the law. The messages of the law and the gospel are not contradictory messages; they are different messages.

If Esau died without saving faith, the verse from Malachi you cited could reference God’s declaration of an unbeliever on the last day. On the other hand, the verse you cited could describe how God lovingly treated two individuals in different ways. Let me explain.

To the Jews of Malachi’s day who grumbled about the lack of love on God’s part (Malachi 1:2), God reminded them that he had showed generous, undeserved love to their ancestor Jacob by overriding the normal order of the birthright, taking that blessing from Esau and giving it to Jacob. In that sense, God “hated” Esau in much the same way as when Jesus instructed people to “hate” members of their family: “If anyone comes to me and does not hate father and mother, wife and children, brothers and sisters—yes, even their own life—such a person cannot be my disciple” (Luke 14:26). “Hatred” there too speaks of a lesser degree of love.

The verse from Malachi that you quoted can be understood in different ways. However, it cannot be understood to mean that God, from eternity, chose Esau to be condemned. That is not the God of the Bible. The Triune God does not want “anyone to perish, but everyone to come to repentance” (2 Peter 3:9). He “wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth” (1 Timothy 2:4).

I have heard that Lutherans believe it is possible for a believer to fall from faith and the WELS web site has confirmed this (This We Believe IV. Justification #9). However, I have also heard that Lutheran doctrine teaches that Christ gives assurance of salvation in a way that implies some sort of "once saved, always saved" doctrine. Is this true and if so, how does it not contradict the belief that a Christian can fall? Also, does the belief that we are saved by baptism or by election mean that there is more than one way to be saved?

It is clear from Scripture that people can fall from faith (Luke 8:13; 1 Corinthians 10:12; Galatians 5:4; 1 Timothy 1:19-20; 2 Peter 3:17).

While God’s law warns us about falling away from faith, God’s gospel assures us that we are safe and secure in God’s hands (John 10:28-29). While we definitely pay attention to the warnings of the law, we cling all the more in Spirit-worked faith to the gospel of Jesus Christ. The gospel is “the power of God for the salvation of everyone who believes” (Romans 1:16). The gospel is God’s message of eternal life (John 3:16).

If God has elected a person to salvation, God will bring that individual to saving faith and preserve that individual in saving faith. None of the elect are lost; all the elect enjoy eternal life. In figurative language Revelation 7 describes all the elect on this earth, and Revelation 14 describes all the elect in God’s presence in heaven.

If a person at one point in life professed Christian faith but then distanced himself or herself from God and died without saving faith, that person was not among the elect.

There is only way to be saved: that is through faith in Jesus Christ (Acts 4:12; 17:31). God works saving faith through the gospel (Romans 1:16). God can work saving faith through the gospel in word alone or through the word and water—baptism. Because baptism connects people to Jesus Christ in saving faith, Scripture can rightly say that baptism saves (Titus 3:5; 1 Peter 3:21). When people are brought to saving faith in Jesus and leave this world with saving faith in their hearts, God was responsible for that through his gracious election (2 Timothy 1:9).

In Luke 23:43 Jesus says, "Today you will be with me in paradise." In our creeds, however, we say, "He descended into hell." I am certain the the Bible is true, and I am not trying to sound like a skeptic, but could you explain where Jesus went after dying and how these two statements are compatible?

On the cross, Jesus told the repentant thief: “Truly I tell you, today you will be with me in paradise” (Luke 23:43). At death, the body and soul separate. When Jesus died on Good Friday, his body and soul separated, as did the body and soul of the repentant thief. Their bodies remained on earth, while their souls entered paradise, heaven. Recall that just prior to his death, Jesus cried out: “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit” (Luke 23:46).

While the body of the repentant thief remains in some form on the earth and his soul is in heaven, Jesus’ body (which did not decay—Acts 2:31) and soul were reunited “on the third day,” just as Jesus had said numerous times (e.g., Matthew 16:21; 17:23).

Before Jesus appeared to people on earth on Easter Sunday morning, he descended into hell with his body and soul to proclaim his victory over sin, Satan and death (1 Peter 3:18-20).

My neighbor says when people die they do not go to heaven or hell at that time, only when Jesus comes back. I was taught that their souls went to heaven or hell right away and when Jesus returns the body and soul will be reunited. I used the thief on the cross and Jesus' answer: today you will be with me in paradise. She said in the Greek there is no comma after today, so he didn't mean it to be right now. How do I answer her?

Scripture teaches that the body and soul separate at death, and people face immediate judgment (Ecclesiastes 12:7; Luke 16:22-23; 23:43; Hebrews 9:27).

The way to arrive at the intended meaning of Jesus’ words to the repentant thief is to keep his words in the context of the conversation. The thief asked that Jesus remember him. He made that request with an element of time included: “when you come into your kingdom.” The thief’s words looked to the future. Jesus acknowledged the man’s request and graciously granted it. Jesus did so also with an element of time included: “today.” While the thief, in faith, sought Jesus’ remembrance of him at some time in the future, Jesus assured the man that his soul would be with his Savior “today,” when both of them died.

Your neighbor is correct that the inspired writers did not use punctuation marks like commas. We insert them in our translations according to the rules of our grammar. In Luke 23:43 we insert a comma between the two clauses that constitute the sentence. To place a comma after “today,” has no basis whatsoever. Jesus was certainly speaking those words “today” and not “yesterday” or “tomorrow.” The comma belongs before the word “today” because that fits with the context of Jesus’ words.

Where can I find an explanation of the parable in Luke 5:36-39?

A free online resource is Kretzmann’s Popular Commentary. This link will take you there. Once there, find “Luke” under the “New Testament” heading and then click on chapter 5

A hands-on commentary that might be available from your pastor or church library is the volume on Luke in The People’s Bible Commentary series.

God bless your reading!

Are there apostles today?

Literally, apostle means “sent out,” “one who is sent out.” With that idea in mind, we reserve the title of apostle for those men who personally saw the Lord and were commissioned by him to do his work. So, no, there are no apostles today.

Then, again, there is one Apostle today. The writer to the Hebrews encourages his readers: “Therefore, holy brothers and sisters, who share in the heavenly calling, fix your thoughts on Jesus, whom we acknowledge as our apostle and high priest” (3:1). Jesus is an apostle in that his heavenly Father sent him to this world on a search and rescue mission: seeking and rescuing lost sinners. For that, we are eternally grateful!

Why does the WELS use a Bible that is based on the Catholic Alexandrian manuscripts instead of the KJV?

Allow me to address a couple of misconceptions in the question.

WELS does not have and has not had an official Bible translation. Congregations are free to use the translation of their choosing. The recent discussions in our church body over Bible translations have dealt with which translation to use in our publications. The current approach is an “eclectic” one, meaning that publications might use a particular translation based on the preference of the author or editor.

When it comes to Bible translations, you will want to keep in mind that the King James Version (1611 A.D.) was based on about 100 manuscripts of the New Testament that dated from approximately 900 to 1500 A.D. In the past century or so, numerous manuscripts have been discovered that date back to 200 to 500 A.D. This means that more recent Bible translations will utilize the manuscripts that were available to the translators of the King James Version and the earlier manuscripts.

I'm an older man and I've been Lutheran all of my life, so you can imagine how many times I've heard the "God is love" sermon. It just seems as though the older I get the more difficult it is for me to believe much of what I've been taught over the last 70 years. As an example. We're told that the devil is a fallen angel and that God is the creator of all things. He knows when a bird falls from the sky, knows the number of hairs on our heads, and hears all of our individual prayers. Why then would he subject those he loves to hardships supposedly caused by a single evil entity? How about identifying the reason for Jesus? We don't need a Savior, we have God. He knows our faults and if we honestly are sorry for what we've done wrong. What about the "flood?" Are we to believe that when God killed every man, woman and child, that they were all vile sinners and there wasn't a good soul among them? We are told that the prophecy of a Savior had been told for hundreds of years, that a star would show the way. Why then did that star only show the way to the three wise men, who were the richest men in town?

I am sorry to hear about your struggles in clinging to the truths of Scripture that you have heard and believed for so long. We do know from the Bible that the devil wants to snatch God’s word from our hearts and lives (Luke 8:5, 12). In addition, our sinful nature (Romans 8:7) and the unbelieving world (1 John 2:15) are opposed to God and his word. This means that we need to build up the new self within us through regular use of God’s gospel in word and sacrament.

Now, to your specific questions.

God does not explain to us in the Bible why he allowed sin to enter his perfect creation. What he does explain is what he did when sin threatened to plunge all people into eternal death: he gave of himself that we could have life and forgiveness through his Son (1 John 4:9-10).

God’s Son, Jesus, is upfront with us when it comes to troubles in life. What he first told his little band of followers holds true for you and me: “In this world you will have trouble.” But more than simply opening our eyes to the reality of life’s difficulties, Jesus promised: “But take heart! I have overcome the world” (John 16:33) And of course in God’s wisdom and love, hardships in life are signs of his love for his children (Hebrews 12:7-13).

The reason for Jesus? Certainly God knows our faults and if we are sorry for the wrongs we have done. But neither God’s knowledge nor our confessions of wrongdoing remove sin from our lives. God determined that “without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness” (Hebrews 9:22). That was the message of the animal sacrifices in the Old Testament—all of which pointed to Jesus and the shedding of his blood on the cross that “purifies us from all sin” (1 John 1:7).

Through the flood of Noah’s day, God did destroy the godless, impenitent and unbelieving world. Noah is described as “a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked faithfully with God” (Genesis 6:9). Noah was not without sin (we see that in Genesis 9), but Noah and his family had penitent, faith-filled hearts through God’s working in them.

We don’t know how many Magi, wise men, there were. People often think in terms of three men because three gifts are mentioned (Matthew 2:11), but we do not know the number. Were they the richest men in town? We don’t know that either. They were definitely spiritually rich because they knew and believed that the Savior born in Bethlehem was also their Savior. That is the great truth of the account of the Magi visiting and worshiping Jesus: Jesus came into the world to be the Savior of all people, including Gentiles, including you and me.

I encourage you to speak to your pastor if you have doubts and questions about the faith. He will be happy to address them, and pray with and for you. In addition, continue to use God’s gospel in word and sacrament faithfully and regularly. That is the means God uses to strengthen your faith. God bless you.

Did Jesus know he was God as a human child?

In the days and years before the Lord’s crucifixion and burial, Jesus did not always or fully make use of his divine powers, such as omniscience. The Bible tells us that Jesus, “being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage; rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to death—even death on a cross!” (Philippians 2:6-8).

While the Bible does not specifically provide information for your question, we do know that even before Jesus was born, Joseph and Mary knew that their child was Immanuel, God with us (Matthew 1:20-25; Luke 1:26-35). They would have had every reason to share that information with Jesus. What we do know from Scripture is that the 12-year-old Jesus was very much aware of his relationship with his heavenly Father (Luke 2:49).

When were the chapters and verses added to the Bible?

Stephen Langton is generally recognized as the individual who was responsible for the chapter divisions of the Bible. Langton served as Archbishop of Canterbury and died in 1228. Credit for the verse divisions of the Bible goes to a Paris printer by the name of Robert Stephens in 1551.

While some of the chapter and verse divisions are awkward, they serve a very practical purpose. Now, for example, we can just say, “John 3:16,” and many people will know what we mean.

A friend has asked me: Why does God require worship? Why does He require thanks, and praise? When I do something genuinely good for someone else, I don't ask for thanks or praise or quid pro quo. It's nice if someone "chooses" to say thanks or notice that something was done for them, but it's not a necessary component. What is the purpose of "worship"? I have my own thoughts, but I would sincerely appreciate your answer to this very good question so I can share it with her!

In the Bible God does condescend and describe himself in human terms so we can better understand him. With that in mind though, our human comparisons to God and his attributes and actions can fall short. What I mean is that there is no comparison between a human act of kindness—for which someone might or might not express gratitude—and God’s self-sacrificial love. The highest form of love is not our love for God or other people; it is God’s love for us. “This is love: not that we loved God, but that he loved us and sent his Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins” (1 John 4:10).

God does not hold out gratitude and worship as optional activities for people. It is his will for them (1 Chronicles 16:29; Psalm 96:9; Matthew 4:10; Revelation 14:7). And more than commanding our worship, it is the mercies of God in Christ that invite and encourage our worship of God (Romans 12:1).

“Worship” can describe the joyful, thankful life of Christians. “Corporate worship” describes what Christians do together in God’s house in worship services. What is the purpose of that worship, you ask? Corporate worship provides opportunities for the people of God to gather together to feed their souls with the gospel in word and sacrament. Corporate worship also provides opportunities for God’s people to direct their praise and gratitude to God in ways that go beyond the praise they can offer in their personal lives. Corporate worship, too, is God’s will for people (Hebrews 10:25).

The sinful nature in Christians wants nothing to do with personal or corporate worship. The sinful nature is an enemy of God (Romans 8:6). The new self in Christians desires and delights in doing what God commands regarding worship (Romans 7:22) and rejoices in opportunities to gather in God’s house with fellow Christians to praise him for his love and goodness. As we build up our new self through word and sacrament, our desire to worship God will also increase.

Much more could be said about personal gratitude expressed to God and corporate worship, but I hope this helps you in your conversation with your friend.

Who is represented by the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2, and what is his purpose?

Commentators are not entirely agreed on the identification of the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2.

There are those who see the rider on the white horse symbolizing Christ and the victorious spread of his gospel message. Their rationale for this understanding is that the color white in Revelation and elsewhere in the Bible represents holiness and purity. Furthermore, they point to Revelation 19:11-16, where the rider on a white horse, who is now wearing many crowns, is identified as Jesus.

Then there are those who see the rider on the white horse symbolizing false Christs. Their rationale for this understanding is that the content of Revelation 6 closely parallels that of Matthew 24. The “false Christs” of Matthew 24:4-5 would correspond to the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2. In addition, they note that the rider in Revelation 6:2 is holding a bow (perhaps associated with the “flaming arrows of the evil one” in Ephesians 6:16) and not “the sword of the Spirit” (Ephesians 6:17).

While there may not be consensus on the identity of the rider on the white horse in Revelation 6:2, we can say that Scripture clearly teaches those two positions. There will be people trying to deceive others in Jesus’ name (Matthew 24:23-24; Luke 21:8). Yet, the Lord will reign supreme forever (Revelation 11:15).

In 1 Peter 2:8 it is written: "They stumble because they disobey the message—which is also what they were destined for." It seems that this means some people were destined to disobey God's Word, therefore leading to damnation. So, it seems this part of Scripture supports the doctrine of double predestination. On the other hand, God's Word tells us that He wants all people to come to repentance (2 Peter 3:9). God's Word cannot contradict itself, so how should 1 Peter 2:8 be understood? Thank you and God bless your faithful responses to all these questions!

You are approaching that Scripture verse with a correct understanding (and one given to you by the Holy Spirit)—that “God’s Word cannot contradict itself.” Throughout the Bible, God makes it clear that he does not want people to perish eternally. “‘As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign LORD, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live’” (Ezekiel 33:11). God “wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth” (1 Timothy 2:4). It is the wider context of Scripture that helps us understand the Bible verse in question.

It is also the narrower context of Scripture that leads us to a correct understanding of that verse. In the previous verses of 1 Peter chapter 2, the apostle explained how differently believers and unbelievers regard Jesus Christ. To believers, Jesus is a precious cornerstone (v. 7). To unbelievers, Jesus is a stone over which they stumble (v. 8). These opposite reactions to Jesus illustrate what the Lord pronounced during his ministry: “Whoever is not with me is against me, and whoever does not gather with me scatters” (Matthew 12:30). There is no neutrality toward Jesus.

But what about the phrase in question—“which is also what they were destined for”? (1 Peter 2:8) We know from Scripture that God, in eternity, has not predestined people to hell. Peter’s words in verse 8 explain that those who reject Jesus in unbelief are destined to have Jesus as a stumbling stone and not a cornerstone. Unbelievers set their course for eternity by their rejection of Jesus.

The Bible makes it very clear that people receive the blame when they are lost eternally, while God gets the credit for people’s salvation.

(And thank you for your kind words!)

I was told that Paul was taught by Jesus for three years. Is that true?

In the opening chapter of Galatians the apostle Paul indicated the way in which he received instruction in the Christian faith. “I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin. I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ” (Galatians 1:11-12).

Later in the same chapter the apostle mentioned his travels into Arabia and Damascus. After that he wrote:  “Then after three years, I went up to Jerusalem to get acquainted with Cephas and stayed with him fifteen days” (Galatians 1:18). The “after three years” refers to the interval of time after his conversion and before he went to Jerusalem—and not the duration of time he received instruction from the Lord.

It is challenging to piece together the events from Paul’s life as described in Galatians and Acts. What is certain is that God intervened in the life of one of his most ardent opponents and turned him into a passionate and tireless kingdom worker. God’s grace shown to you and me is no less amazing (Ephesians 2:1-10).

Would you please explain the shrewd servant parable in Luke 16? Thanks!

The parable describes a dishonest manager at work. After his dishonesty was discovered, he continued to be dishonest—and shrewd. He cut deals with his master’s debtors to try to pave the way for new employment once his present job came to an end.

In short, the manager mismanaged someone else’s money for the benefit of his own earthly life. In verse 9 Jesus tells us to do just the opposite: to use our earthly wealth unselfishly for the eternal benefit of other people.

Certainly, our financial support of gospel outreach and mission work is a way of using our earthly wealth for the eternal benefit of other people.

One of our hymns captures that thought well. “May our zeal to help the heathen Be increased from day to day, As we plead in true compassion And for their conversion pray. For the many faithful workers, For the gospel they proclaim, Let us all be cheerful givers To the glory of your name.” (Christian Worship 577:3)

I'm a Christian from a Lutheran Church in China. Some people would like the German Bible translated from Greek by Luther in the 16th century to be translated into Chinese. My question is whether it is necessary to translate that German Bible into English or other language now.

Bible translations are undertaken so that the message of God’s word can be communicated clearly to people in a language they know and understand. Martin Luther’s translation of the Bible was immensely important because it put the truths of God’s word into the language that common people in Germany could understand.

Is it necessary to translate Luther’s Bible into English or another language? No. It would be preferable to translate from the original languages of the Bible—Hebrew and Greek—as Luther did. A translation of his translation would amount to a paraphrase.

I understand that numerous Chinese Bible translations are available to you: for example, the Chinese Union Version, the Revised Chinese Union Version and the Chinese Contemporary Bible.

If you are interested in other Bible-based materials in Chinese, this link will take you to the Chinese section of Multi-Language Publications available from Northwestern Publishing House.

God bless your study of his word!

Good afternoon. I will try to make this brief. I was born into a nominally Mormon home. For most of my growing years my parents never attended services, so I went by myself for many years. It was all I knew. After joining the Navy and much witnessing by several people, I finally read God's Word. I was convinced I was in the wrong place and resigned from the Mormon Church. I did the Bible Church thing for a while, then the base chapel and finally nothing for several years. I am now a member of an LCMS congregation. However, from time to time Mormon doctrine still rings in my head. Mormons believe in a pre-existence of our soul and when I read about the transfiguration, how would the disciples know who Christ was talking with having never met them before? It does not concern me to the point of doubting my faith, and I don't lose sleep over it, but it does make me wonder.

As you have come to know and believe, the Bible does not speak of the pre-existence of souls. That is one of many false teachings in the Mormon Church. It is good to read of your dissociation from that church.

The transfiguration accounts (Matthew 17:1-13; Mark 9:2-13; Luke 9:28-36) are truly amazing. Two Old Testament prophets appeared with Jesus, who revealed himself in all his glory as the Son of God. Peter, James and John were there to witness that glorious sight.

It was Peter who wanted to prolong the experience by erecting shelters for the Lord, for Moses and for Elijah. How did Peter and his companions recognize Moses and Elijah, since their earthly lives did not come anywhere close to overlapping? That is a question Scripture simply does not address. What we can do is rule out any kind of prior meeting of those individuals in a pre-existent soul setting.

We can also look forward to the time when we will see all the individuals in the transfiguration account—especially our Lord—and all fellow believers. There will be no need to try to prolong the experience. It will be forever!

Could you please give me a detailed explanation of predestination? I am currently reading the Concordia, but find it a bit hard to understand.

I understand it this way. Open your Bible to the very first page. Genesis chapter 1 explains what God did in the beginning of time, when he established time. What is on the opposite page of Genesis chapter 1 in your Bible? In the Bible I mainly use, there is a table of contents. Imagine that page opposite Genesis chapter 1 representing eternity, before God created anything.

Now imagine your name and mine on that page opposite Genesis chapter 1. That would represent the idea that in eternity, before God began his work of creation, he graciously chose people to be part of his family. That choosing was not because of anything God saw in people; he did not look into the future and elect people to be his own because he saw what they would turn out to be. Predestination is due entirely to God’s grace, his undeserved love.

After graciously choosing people to be his own, God sees to it that those same people come into contact with his gospel, are brought to saving faith in Jesus and kept in that saving faith until their lives on earth come to an end (Romans 8:28-30).

Scripture speaks only of a predestination, or election, to salvation. There is no counterpart like a predestination to damnation, as God makes it clear that he wants all to be saved (1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9).

While predestination challenges our understanding, it is intended to be a comfort to us. The comfort is that our salvation—from beginning to end—is entirely God’s doing. And when salvation is God’s doing and not ours, in any way, there is absolute certainty about it.

So, the next time you read Genesis chapter 1, look over at the opposite page and visualize your name there. That will give you another reason to praise God for his gracious love.

When was the ark of the covenant's end?

The Bible is silent on what happened to the ark of the covenant. A common thought is that the Babylonians destroyed it, along with other temple furnishings and the temple itself, when they invaded Jerusalem in 586 B.C. Some Bible scholars wonder if the ark of the covenant was even extant at that time. Your question is one that the Bible does not answer.

The name Jesus? I have seen information recently that the name Jesus did not exist until about 400 years ago. What would the disciples have called Jesus by name? Why don't we use his name from the time period he was on earth?

In the gospel accounts we will find the disciples addressing the Son of God with “Master,” “Teacher,” “Lord,” and “Rabbi” rather than his personal name “Jesus.” That was very much in keeping with what the Lord told his followers: “You call me ‘Teacher’ and ‘Lord,’ and rightly so, for that is what I am” (John 13:13).

If we were to use “his name from the time period he was on earth,” as listed in the New Testament which was originally written in Greek, we would use the name . When the Bible is translated into other languages, that name becomes “Jesus” (English), Gesù (Italian), etc. “Jesus” is the English form of the Greek name.

I've heard there are a lot of old religious books that didn't make it into the Bible. How did we get the Bible we have today? Was there some kind of church council where they just picked which books belonged?

Much has been written on the subject matter of which you asked. What follows are excerpts from an article that appeared in The Northwestern Lutheran, the predecessor of Forward in Christ. The article addresses your questions well.

“From Scripture we know that there were many ancient books of a religious nature, which never became part of the Bible. Thus we read in 1 Chronicles 29:29,30. First Chronicles is a part of the Scriptures, but these books to which it refers as authorities are not. (See also 2 Chronicles 9:29, 12:15 and 13:22.)

“Who determined which books belonged to the Old Testament? The Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Old Testament made by the Jews living in Alexandria, Egypt, and completed by about the year 250 B.C., contains all the books we have in our Old Testament plus a few others. The Jewish Council of Jamnia in the year 90 A.D., however, accepted only those we have in our present Old Testament. Who was right, the Septuagint or the Council of Jamnia? And which of these was empowered to determine the number of the Old Testament books?

“In determining the content of the Old Testament we are not dependent on the Old Testament believers living in Egypt around 250 B.C. or on the Jewish rabbis who gathered at Jamnia in A.D. 90. Rather, it is Christ who has made this decision for us.

“On Easter evening Christ appeared to the apostles in the upper room and showed them his hands and his feet and ate before them to convince them that he was indeed the risen Lord. And he did more than that. He pointed them to the Scriptures, saying, ‘This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms.)’ Luke continues: ‘Then he opened their minds so they could understand the Scriptures.’

“In those words the Lord himself marks the perimeter of the Old Testament: the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms–the same books we at present have in our Old Testament. Furthermore, no others are quoted in the New Testament as Scripture. For us that is decisive. No one can know better than our Lord. That Ezra and the men who worked with him originally collected these books is granted, but that is not the decisive issue. What our Lord said, however, is.

“Does our Lord Jesus lay down any principles we can apply in judging the New Testament? Indeed he does. He gives us an advanced list of the writers when he says to his disciples: ‘But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you’ (John 14:26). He assures us that what they speak in his name and write in his name is God’s Word.

“This is also the witness of the rest of the New Testament. Paul, whom our Lord Jesus called as his apostle on the road to Damascus, wrote to the Galatians (1:11,12): ‘I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel I preached is not something that man made up. I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ.’ And in Ephesians 2:19,20 he added: ‘Consequently, you are no longer foreigners and aliens, but fellow citizens with God’s people and members of God’s household, built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, with Christ Jesus himself as the chief cornerstone.’ The term ‘prophets’ refers to the Old Testament, and the term ‘apostles’ to the New Testament. Such is the testimony of the New Testament to itself.

“This is the way Paul speaks about himself in 2 Thessalonians 2:13-15: ‘But we ought always to thank God for you, brothers loved by the Lord, because from the beginning God chose you to be saved through the sanctifying work of the Spirit and through belief in the truth. He called you to this through our gospel that you might share in the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ. So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the teachings we passed on to you, whether by word of mouth or by letter.’ And in his first letter to them (1 Thessalonians 2:13) he had already stated: ‘And we also thank God continually because, when you received the word of God, which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but as it actually is, the word of God, which is at work in you who believe.’ Paul taught that these writings of his were inspired, and the recipients of his writings recognized them as such.

“The gathering and distribution of the New Testament writings began shortly after they were written. Paul, for example, tells the Colossians (4:16): ‘After this letter has been read to you, see that it is also read in the church of the Laodiceans.’ In other words, congregations and individuals who received these writings shared them with other congregations and individuals. In each case the testimony of the first recipients was available in addition to the witness of the individual writings themselves.

“In 2 Peter 3:15 Peter speaks of the existence of a collection of Paul’s letters. ‘Bear in mind,’ he writes, ‘that our Lord’s patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction.’

“The evidence is clear. God saw to it that the inspired writings of the apostles and prophets, which constitute our Old and New Testaments were collected and preserved. His inspiration authenticated them all. And above all, we have the witness of the Scripture itself.

“Thus, as we investigate the history of the canon, there can be no doubt that the canon was fixed not by men, not by the church, but by God. The 66 books we have in our Bible are the books inspired by the Holy Spirit. As such they are self-authenticating. Yes, our Bible is reliable; we can trust its promises; nothing is missing!”

If a person hears the gospel in a different language that they do not know and cannot understand or comprehend, does it still have the potential to create faith?

The key word is “potential.” God can do anything, and his gospel is his power “that brings salvation to everyone who believes” (Romans 1:16).

That being said though, the Bible states that “faith comes from hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word about Christ” (Romans 10:17). The same apostle who penned those words also explained to the Christians in Corinth that unintelligible language in the church does not benefit anyone (1 Corinthians 14).

Because infants may not be capable of communicating to us what they know and understand, we are grateful that God has given us baptism—his gracious, powerful Word and water—to connect them to Jesus in faith.

On p. 99 of David Limbaugh's book "The Emmaus Code," he quotes J. Vernon McGee as saying "The life is in the blood. This is a great, eternal truth. This explains why Abel's sacrifice was acceptable and Cain's was not. It is the blood that maketh an atonement for the soul." He also uses Leviticus 17:11 and Hebrews 9:22 to back up his point. Is this an acceptable interpretation? The Genesis account doesn't appear to specify the reason for God's rejection of Cain's offering.

Leviticus 17:11 points out how instrumental blood is in sustaining life. Hebrews 9:22 explains that in God’s plan of salvation the shedding of his Son’s blood was necessary to forgive sins. 1 John 1:7 states a similar truth. The animal sacrifices prescribed in the Old Testament ceremonial laws pointed ahead to Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross.

When it comes to God’s acceptance of Abel’s sacrifice and his rejection of Cain’s sacrifice, the Genesis account simply speaks of God looking upon one brother’s sacrifice “with favor” and “not looking” upon the other brother’s sacrifice with favor.

Hebrews 11:4 informs us that it was not the kind of sacrifice the brothers brought that resulted in God’s different reactions to their sacrifices. It was a matter of one brother (Abel) bringing a sacrifice to God out of faith in the promised Savior, while another brother (Cain) brought a sacrifice to God with a different motive. God’s different reactions toward the brothers is explained not by what they brought, but by what was in their hearts. That account of Cain and Abel shows us already what we would learn from a later account in Scripture, that “The LORD does not look at the things people look at. People look at the outward appearance, but the LORD looks at the heart” (1 Samuel 16:7).

Hello, How are we to understand Psalm 104 in general, and verses 6-9 specifically? For example, do verses 6-9 describe day three of creation, or is there a break in time between verses 8 and 9, with verse 8 describing God's creative work, while verse 9 refers to the Flood? Were the mountains raised up and valleys made low to recover from the global flood? God's blessings.

Psalm 104 is seen as a wonderful review of God’s creative work recorded in Genesis 1-2. The verses you cited are part of a longer section (verses 5-18) that describes God’s activities on day three of creation week.

When we consider how the psalm describes the power and goodness of God that is directed at people, it is very appropriate for the psalm to begin and end with the instruction to “Praise the Lord.”

What does the Bible say about Jesus descending into hell?

Right before Jesus died on the cross he said, “Father, into your hands I commit my spirit” (Luke 23:46). When he died, his body and soul separated. His body remained on earth, while his soul went to heaven.

On Easter Sunday morning Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in Joseph’s tomb. Then the Lord descended into hell. 1 Peter 3:18-20 states: “ For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. After being made alive, he went and made proclamation to the imprisoned spirits— to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built.”

Jesus did not descend into hell to suffer for the sins of the world or to offer people who had died a second chance at being saved. He descended into hell to “make proclamation” of his victory over sin, death and hell. It was a triumphal event. Colossians 2:13-15 alludes to that: “When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, having canceled the charge of our legal indebtedness, which stood against us and condemned us; he has taken it away, nailing it to the cross. And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.”

In the Garden of Eden God had prophesied his Son’s victory over Satan (Genesis 3:15). When Jesus descended into hell, he proclaimed that victory.

I have learned much about having a better marriage through understanding a husband's loving headship and a wife's way of serving God by respectfully helping her husband. However, as a woman, I am still wondering about the origin of subordination. As far as I have come to understand, there are two competing views. 1) In the beginning, God made the woman when Adam realized that all the animals had a fitting counterpart while he was all alone. He made her to make Adam happy, to be his companion through life, to overcome loneliness and have children. This does not necessarily mean that she was less than Adam, since having him also made her happy and gave her a counterpart, too. 2) Two arguments are brought forth: Paul says "Adam was made first" (1 Tim 2,13), thus making it clear that there must be some special value attached to men, since Adam was made "just like that," for man to be made, while Eve was made for Adam, as some kind of accessory. Thus, men must be worth more than women in some way at least. The wife has been made for the sake of the husband, which proves that God had some kind of subordination in mind from the very beginning and women are somewhat second class (even though God loves them and Christ has fully redeemed them as sinners). Which side is right? I would very much appreciate a theologically sound answer.

The first view is closer to the truth of Scripture. It is clear from the Bible that men and women are equal in God’s eyes: “So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. If you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise” (Galatians 3:26-28). There are no second class citizens in God’s kingdom; all members—male and female—of God’s kingdom are kings and priests in his sight (1 Peter 2:9; Revelation 1:6). The different and complementary roles and callings that God has given to men and women do not negate their equality before God.

The best thing I could do is to suggest further reading on this subject. This link will take you a doctrinal statement of our church body on the scriptural principles of man and woman roles. This next link will provide you with a study titled Man and Woman in God’s World. These documents will provide you with theologically sound answers to your questions and concerns.

How long did Job suffer?

In one sense I could say, “All his life.” That is because the Bible states that “We must go through many hardships to enter the kingdom of God” (Acts 14:22) and because Jesus assured his followers that they would experience trouble in this world (John 16:33).

But I presume you are referencing the specific sufferings brought on by Satan’s actions in Job’s life, which God allowed in his wisdom and love. The Bible does not lay out a timeline of those sufferings.

What the Bible does tell us is that when Job’s satanic sufferings came to an end, “The LORD blessed the latter part of Job’s life more than the former part” (Job 42:12).

It was a wise and loving God who allowed Job to experience those particular sufferings. We can describe God in that same way when we find ourselves in the midst of sufferings (Hebrews 12:4-11; 1 Peter 1:3-9).

Does the Bible give a specific amount/percentage of income that we should give to the ministry (like 10%), or are we Christians to give generously as we feel fit without a specific percentage in mind?

New Testament Christians enjoy freedom from the Old Testament ceremonial laws, including the tithe. Scripture does offer the guidance to New Testament followers of the Lord that offerings be in keeping with our income (1 Corinthians 16:2). Planning and giving back to the Lord based on a percentage of our income is definitely a scriptural approach. In essence, the tithe has been replaced by ___%. New Testament followers of the Lord are free to fill in the blank.

Recognition that “our” money belongs to God (Psalm 24:1; Haggai 2:8) and gratitude for our salvation (Romans 12:1) provide good reasons for proportionate giving that is generous and cheerful (2 Corinthians 9:7).

The value of a percentage-based approach to giving is that it enables the giver to manage the fluctuations of income and still follow a plan for giving back to the Lord.

Is the idea of a flat earth unbiblical? Does it contradict the Bible in any way? I've read up on flat earth out of curiosity, and the main reason for a Christian to believe flat earth exists is that it would be almost undeniable proof that God exists. Globe earth is a secular evolutionary theory and suggests that we are nothing special, but a speck in the universe and we evolved from animals. In a flat earth model, we would be the crown of God's creation. It seems possible Satan would deceive people through science like this.

It could be that people imagined the world to be flat from reading passages like Isaiah 11:12 (“He will raise a banner for the nations and gather the exiles of Israel; he will assemble the scattered people of Judah from the four quarters of the earth.) and Revelation 7:1 (After this I saw four angels standing at the four corners of the earth, holding back the four winds of the earth to prevent any wind from blowing on the land or on the sea or on any tree.).

In his word, however, God often uses language to come down to our level so that we can understand him and his ways better. The “four quarters” and “four winds” match up with the four directions (Luke 13:29). In the Bible God even used the terminology of people’s understanding of his creation (cf. Joshua and the sun standing still, Joshua 10:1-15).

Throughout Scripture there is a need to understand the varied ways in which God communicates to us. That is what biblical interpretation is all about. Accurate biblical interpretation will recognize that God is spirit (John 4:24) and not a bird having feathers and wings (Psalm 91:4). Accurate biblical interpretation will recognize Jesus Christ as true man and true God not an actual lion or lamb (Revelation 5:5-6). Similarly, accurate biblical interpretation will recognize how God describes our world in figurative ways.

Human beings are the crown of God’s creation in that God made all things and then made people in his image (Genesis 1:26-27) to rule over and care for his creation (Genesis 1:28; 2:15).

It is creation itself (Psalm 19:1) that attests to the existence of God, along with our conscience (Romans 2:15) and God’s word (Exodus 3:14). God be praised for his creation—and for coming to the rescue of his fallen creation through Jesus Christ his Son.

Nephilim, fallen angels, Anakim, Rephaim? I've only just heard and read about these recently. I didn't know this was in the Bible. Does the WELS believe in this?

Do we believe that these people were real? Yes.

Do we believe the fantastic meanings some have proposed regarding them? No.

This link will take you to an article in Forward in Christ written by my predecessor in this position that addresses the Nephilim.

What does WELS say to those who believe that you have to accept Jesus into their heart--aka going from unbelief to belief?

Faith in Jesus Christ is absolutely necessary to enjoy forgiveness of sins and eternal life (Mark 16:16).

Faith, however, is a “gift of God” (Ephesians 2:8-9). People cannot bring themselves to faith in Jesus because they are powerless to do so (Ephesians 2:1), they are naturally blind to the truths of salvation (2 Corinthians 4:4-6), and they have no desire to come to faith in Jesus because of their natural animosity toward God (Romans 8:7).

What was true regarding Jesus’ disciples is true of every child of God: “You did not choose me, but I chose you…” (John 15:16). Thank God for the gift of Christian faith!

Is there, and where is it, a Bible passage that specifically states that Abraham (or Isaac, Jacob, Moses, etc.) went to heaven? Like - "and God took Abraham to heaven"?

Rather than using those precise words, the Bible states that a person like Abraham “was gathered to his people” (Genesis 25:8). Still, it is very clear what happened to Old Testament believers like Abraham when they died. The writer to the Hebrews included Abraham when he wrote: “All these people were still living by faith when they died. They did not receive the things promised; they only saw them and welcomed them from a distance, admitting that they were foreigners and strangers on earth. People who say such things show that they are looking for a country of their own. If they had been thinking of the country they had left, they would have had opportunity to return. Instead, they were longing for a better country—a heavenly one. Therefore God is not ashamed to be called their God, for he has prepared a city for them “ (Hebrews 11:13-16).

The Bible does use the terminology you referenced when it comes to Elijah and his fiery exit from this world: “When the LORD was about to take Elijah up to heaven in a whirlwind, Elijah and Elisha were on their way from Gilgal… As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind” (2 Kings 2:1, 11).

Old Testament and New Testament believers form that group that the apostle John saw in one of the visions God gave him (Revelation 7:1-8). How blessed that you and I also belong to that group through God-given faith in Jesus Christ.

Someone asked me this question the other day and I didn't know how to answer them. The question is: "What happened to Lazarus' soul while he was in the grave? Did he experience heaven during the time that his body was in the grave? Would he then have had the opportunity to share his glimpse of heaven with those he knew after he was raised from the dead?" I told them that Scripture doesn't give us any specific information on this event, but maybe there are other passages of Scripture that can help explain the question.

As with any other human being, the body and soul of Lazarus separated when he died (Ecclesiastes 12;7). His soul went to heaven, while his body remained on earth. His soul remained in heaven while his body was in the tomb.

Resurrection is the reuniting of body and soul. That happened when Jesus summoned Lazarus to come out of the tomb (John 11:43).

Did Lazarus have memories of his short time in heaven, and did he share those memories with his family and friends? It is an interesting question, but it is one the Bible does not answer.

When it comes to Lazarus and other people who were raised from the dead in Old and New Testament times, the narratives in the Bible underscore the love and power of God and do not touch on the experiences of those involved.

Does faith precede regeneration?

No. Regeneration is a term for the work of the Holy Spirit whereby he brings people to saving faith in Jesus Christ.

The Bible explains that all people are spiritually dead by nature (Ephesians 2:1). Regeneration describes the work of the Holy Spirit in giving new life—faith—to people who were spiritually dead (Ephesians 2:4-5.) Regeneration speaks of being born again (John 3:3-6; 1 Peter 1:23).

What does the Bible say about being a surrogate mother?

The Bible does not address that subject directly. On the website of Christian Life Resources, an agency within WELS, you will find numerous articles that apply related Scripture passages to the subject matter. Searching their website for “surrogate” will give you helpful information.

Is each pope (like Pope Francis or John Paul) individually the Antichrist or is it just the office?

As previous questions have addressed this topic, allow me to pass along one of the responses:

“We believe that understanding the Antichrist as an institution (the papacy) rather than merely individual representatives of that institution (individual popes) best fits the descriptions given in Scripture and is quite compatible with similar prophecies elsewhere in the Bible.

“Under the picture of the ‘man of lawlessness’ in 2 Thessalonians 2, various anti-Christian characteristics are given. Among them is the phenomenon that his workings were already beginning to take form at the time of the apostles and yet would continue to exist until exposed and condemned by the Lord Jesus at Christ’s second coming (2 Thessalonians 2:7-8). That kind of description best fits an enduring institution.

“Also, in similar as well as parallel apocalyptic prophecies, the pictures of individual animals (beasts) and people are used to denote empires or political as well as religious systems. Examples can be found in Daniel chapters 7 and 8, and Revelation 13.”

You can read our church body’s full statement on this subject via this link.

Why was Martin Luther against so many of the books that are in the Catholic Bible, and some that remain in ours also? From what I have researched, he tried to get rid of some of the books we currently have, including Hebrews, James, and Revelation (and the seven Old Testament books he was successful with). He also said that "the epistle of St. James is an epistle full of straw." (He seemed to really dislike James' writings). Why did the Protestant Bible throw away so many books, ones it had before the Reformation?

Like other church leaders, Martin Luther had opinions about books of the Bible and writings that were purported to be canonical. From the start, I need to emphasize that we, as confessional Lutheran Christians, do not base any of our teachings on the opinions of Martin Luther. We recognize that he was a highly gifted individual whom God used, along with others, at a critical time in history to restore the truths of his word. Luther’s writings, however, are not the foundation of our faith. Scripture alone is.

That being said, Luther did have opinions—strong ones sometimes—on what constituted the canon. (In that regard, let me emphasize that the church did not establish the canon. God did.) Luther’s early views on the book of James are understandable: the emphasis on good works seemed to be supportive of the Roman Catholic Church’s teaching of work righteousness against which he was opposed.

As time went on, he softened his views on James. Luther’s introductory remarks to the book of Romans illustrate an understanding of what the book of James stresses: “Oh, a living, energetic, active, mighty thing is this faith. It is impossible for it not to do good incessantly. Nor does it ask whether good works are to be done; but before the question is put, it has already done them and is forever doing them…Faith is a living, daring confidence in the grace of God. It is so certain that a man would die for it a thousand times over. This confidence and knowledge of divine grace makes a person happy, bold and of high spirits in his relation to God and all His creatures. The Holy Spirit creates this attitude in faith. Hence a person, without constraint, becomes willing and eager to do good to everybody, to serve everybody, to suffer all sorts of things for the love of God and to the praise of Him who has shown him such grace. So it is impossible to separate works from faith, indeed just as impossible as it is to separate heat and light from fire.” [What Luther Says, Volume I, pages 498-499]

While Luther did have questions and reservations about books like Hebrews, James, Jude and Revelation, he included them in his translation of the Bible. (Incidentally, he also included the Apocrypha in his translation. He did so with the notation that those books were not to be considered equal with other books of the Bible, but they were useful for reading.)

The “Protestant Bible” did not throw away books that it had before the Reformation. By the time of Jesus, the books of the Old Testament were recognized as God’s word. Jesus himself spoke of the threefold division of Old Testament books: “the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms” (Luke 24:44). After about three centuries, there was general consensus in the church that the New Testament books of the Bible were those written by Jesus’ apostles or their acquaintances (Ephesians 2:20). The discussions and debates in the church though did not establish the New Testament canon. God did.

If you are interested in reading more on this topic, this link will provide you with many articles.

When referring to the fruit of the Spirit, do we use fruit in a singular or plural form? In other words, does it matter if we say that the fruit of the Spirit is one fruit with the attributes of love, joy, peace or if we say each attribute is a fruit of the Spirit?

We use it in a singular form. “The fruit of the Spirit” (Galatians 5:22) is an accurate translation of the original Greek. “Fruit” is a collective noun that describes the parts it encompasses.

It does not matter how you describe the relationship of the attributes to the fruit. “The fruit of the Spirit” is what the Holy Spirit works in people through the gospel in word and sacraments. The fruit that the Holy Spirit brings about in the lives of Christians is “love, joy, peace, forbearance [patience], kindness, goodness, faithfulness, gentleness and self-control.”

How different that “fruit” is from the “acts of the flesh” (Galatians 5:19-21). The attitudes and actions that the Holy Spirit brings about in us are far, far different from what our sinful nature produces. Through contrition and repentance we seek to control the acts of the sinful flesh, and through the gospel in word and sacraments we receive the fruit that the Holy Spirit bestows.

When Jacob wrestled with God in Genesis 32, he demanded that God would bless him. Can we also demand a blessing from God?

Demand has the idea of “asking authoritatively.” The shading of that word would rule out our demanding that God answer our prayers the way we want. We are not in a position to tell God what to do. God is the Creator. We are his creation (Psalm 100:3).

Still, God invites us to pray to him boldly and persistently (Luke 18:1-8). But we balance that invitation with the recognition that God knows what is best for us (2 Corinthians 12:7-9).

The account of Jacob wrestling with the Lord is certainly a fascinating one. It shows us how the Lord condescended and entered the life of Jacob physically for his good. The account shows us how the all-powerful Lord made himself “weak” so that one of his children could prevail.

A takeaway from that account, again, is an encouragement for you and me to come to God boldly and persistently in prayer—laying before him our “petitions, prayers and intercession” (1 Timothy 2:1), knowing and believing that he will answer them according to his wisdom and love.

Martin Luther’s memorable explanation of the address of the Lord’s Prayer summarizes well these thoughts: “With these words God tenderly invites us to believe that he is our true Father and that we are his true children, so that we may pray to him as boldly and confidently as dear children ask their dear father.”

Regarding head coverings in 1 Corinthians 11: are Christian women supposed to cover their heads when they worship/pray? Is it a sin not to? Why did we stop this practice? It seems clear that Paul is referring to a head covering on top of long hair (long hair is not a substitute for a covering). It also does not seem to be a cultural thing, since Roman women in Corinth did not cover their heads. (It was a Christian thing.) Verse 16 says, "If anyone wants to be contentious [argue] about this, we have no other practice - nor do the churches of God." Does this not mean that God's true church partakes in this head covering practice? And that if Corinth did not do this also, they were not a part of the true church? I am scared to pray/worship now, since I do not want to sin deliberately.

You do not need to worry about praying and worshiping with your head uncovered. In 1 Corinthians 11:16, a verse you cited, the apostle Paul identifies the head coverings of the Christian women in Corinth as a “practice” or custom. A local practice or custom is far different from a universal principle from God, binding all women of all time to do the same. Because the Bible limits the instruction of head coverings to the women of Corinth in the first century by calling this a “practice,” women of other places and times are not bound to that instruction.

What was going on in Corinth? In the everyday, pagan culture of Corinth, women had head coverings (and you notice from the footnote in the NIV that such coverings could have been long hair in general or actual coverings to the head), recognizing by nature what God says in his Word—that men and women have distinctive callings in life as head and helper. The directive in 1 Corinthians 11 was that the Christian women in Corinth not to be social renegades, but living examples of biblical principles regarding men and women (1 Corinthians 11:3). By mirroring cultural practices that were occasioned by the natural knowledge of God and conscience, the Christian women of Corinth could reinforce that knowledge and display their faith so others could be positively influenced (Matthew 5:16).

I encourage you to recognize the Christian freedom you have when it comes to praying to God and worshiping him, and then exercise it with a clear conscience.

What does 1 Corinthians 15:29 mean?

If you were to read the commentary on this verse in The People’s Bible (1 Corinthians, pages 149-150), you would find this: “Our first impression is that early Christians practiced vicarious baptism; one person could be baptized for another and thus could transfer his salvation to another. But the Bible clearly teaches that each person is saved by his own baptism and by his own faith. A God-fearing mother cannot believe or be baptized for a godless son.

“If it was not a vicarious baptism that Paul had in mind, then what was the practice he was referring to? More than three hundred different interpretations of this passage have been offered. Several of the interpretations that put the best construction on the practice are: 1) The relative of a Christian who has died may wish to be baptized in order to see this Christian again; 2) He may want to express the hope that a Christian friend who had died will rise; 3) The baptism and the godly life and final death of their friends in the sure hope of a blessed resurrection prompt the living also to desire and receive baptism for the same blessed purpose.

“In any event, even if there was a baptism for the dead that was prompted by the false notion that the baptism of a living person would benefit an ungodly person already dead (baptism by proxy), the practice would have been meaningless if the dead don’t rise. By referring to such an unscriptural practice (if, indeed, it existed) Paul was not condoning it. He was simply stating that even such a custom was a testimony to the reality of the resurrection.”

In summary, the apostle Paul speaks of a practice of which the Christians in Corinth were aware, but we today are not. That leaves us with questions—unanswered questions. Regardless of the unknown practice, the emphasis in that verse and throughout the entire fifteenth chapter is on Jesus’ physical resurrection from the dead. There is no uncertainty about that event. Many eyewitnesses saw the risen Lord. Earlier in 1 Corinthians 15 Paul listed some of those eyewitnesses.

The People’s Bible series offers explanation and commentary on all the books of the Bible. Your church library may have that series. The series is also available through Northwestern Publishing House.

Who exactly is Michael the archangel of the last few chapters of the book of Daniel, and what role does he play in God's plans regarding the Church and the end times?

While the language of Daniel 10:13 and 12:1 allows Michael to be identified as the second person of the Trinity, the Angel of the Lord, it more likely describes the archangel Michael (Jude 9; Revelation 12:7).

In the latter chapters of the book of Daniel, God, in a sense, pulls back the curtain of world history and gives us information we would never be able to acquire on our own.

What we do know from Scripture is that we Christians are involved in a spiritual battle of epic proportions: “For our struggle is not against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the powers of this dark world and against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly realms” (Ephesians 6:12). Those last chapters of Daniel inform us that not only are God’s people engaged in spiritual warfare with evil angels but so are the holy angels. Those chapters reveal the battles that were taking place between a holy angel and an evil angel—and involving earthly governments.

As we head toward Judgment Day we can expect Satan and his evil angels, along with their allies in ungodly governments and churches (Revelation 13), to do what they can to overthrow Christ and his Church. Satan knows his time for doing this is short (Revelation 12:12). But as we head toward Judgment Day we can also expect and count on God to use his holy angels, including Michael the archangel, to ward off evil and protect his people. How God will do that escapes our observation. What we do know is the final outcome: on Judgment Day Satan and his evil angels will be confined to hell forever, never able to bother God’s people again (Revelation 20:10). How we long for that day!

If Jesus spoke his words in Aramaic and the gospel writers later wrote them down in Greek, why do our pastors go to so much trouble analyzing the Greek in careful exegesis? Couldn't it be misleading to examine every tiny detail in the Greek words, since they are actually just a paraphrase of what he said in Aramaic?

In a few instances the gospel writers did preserve Aramaic words spoken by Jesus. A couple of those instances are Matthew 27:46 and Mark 5:41. That being said, the premise that Jesus spoke exclusively in Aramaic cannot be substantiated. In the early first century A.D. it was common for Jews to speak Greek in public. There are historical examples of that practice. It would not have been unusual for Jesus to follow that pattern—using Greek in his conversations in public and Aramaic at other times.

Ultimately it cannot be said with absolute certainty what red-letter words in our English Bibles Jesus might have originally spoken in Aramaic or in Greek, but that really doesn’t matter. The doctrine of verbal inspiration means that God gave the Bible writers the very words to write down (1 Corinthians 2:13). The words that the gospel writers penned are God’s words, the words he wanted them to record. That is why it is important for our pastors to study Jesus’ words in the Greek New Testament.

In addition, keep in mind that there are 23 other New Testament books which we know—without a doubt—were originally written in Greek. God also guided those writers so that they wrote down his words. That too explains why it is important for our pastors to study those words in the Greek New Testament.

The education in biblical languages that our pre-seminary and seminary students receive is definitely a rigorous and demanding one. It is also a pretty rare one in the world of churches today. But what a blessing this education—and the exercising of it—is for our pastors and the people they serve. Bible class and sermon preparation can be done on the basis of Hebrew and Greek.

All that study of God’s word in the original languages has the purpose of better understanding and relaying the precious truths that God has revealed in his word. We can be thankful that the Holy Spirit reminded the disciples of everything Jesus said (John 14:26) and that he led the gospel writers and all the writers of the books of the Bible to record God’s words with complete accuracy.

What happened to Eden's tree of life?

We hear of that tree last in Genesis 3:24. If God did not remove that tree prior to the flood in Noah’s day, it would have been destroyed then.

Interestingly enough, the tree of life reappears in a figurative sense in the last book of the Bible (Revelation 22:2). Heaven is described in a way in which we come full circle from Genesis 3; Paradise is restored! What a loving God we have.

Did Jesus have a body before He became incarnate (born of a woman)? Does the Father have a body? Does the Holy Spirit? Did Jesus come into existence when the Word was spoken by God? ("Let there be light.") (Jesus says He is the beginning and the end and all things are made through Him.) Or did He exist before that? Is the Father or Jesus the God of Israel in the Old Testament? Or does the Father speak through the Son (by the Word)? Thanks !

Jesus did not have a body before he was born in Bethlehem. The Father and the Holy Spirit do not have a body. “God is spirit” (John 4:24). While Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit and born of the virgin Mary some 2,000 years ago, that was not the beginning of his existence. Jesus once told a group of Jews: “Before Abraham was born, I Am!” (John 8:58) On the night before he went to the cross, Jesus prayed to his heavenly Father: “And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began” (John 17:5).

The God of Israel in the Old Testament is the Triune God: Father, Son (Jesus) and Holy Spirit. The writer to the Hebrews answers your last question: “In the past God spoke to our ancestors through the prophets at many times and in various ways, but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom also he made the universe” (Hebrews 1:1-2).

How thankful we can be that in the Bible God answers these questions about our Savior.

I ran across this statement a while ago: "The effectual fervent prayer of a righteous man availeth much! However, I think we can't look at promises made to Old Testament Israel, and expect God to keep them to 2016 America.....". I believe this person was referring to the covenants made between God and his people, Israel. Could you comment on this and enlighten me?

Within the Sinaitic covenant (Exodus 19:3-6), God did make promises to Old Testament Israel that had application limited to them. In addition, God gave Old Testament Israel ceremonial and civil laws that are no longer applicable today.

On the other hand, there are many promises God that made to Old Testament Israel that are still applicable to 2016 America. Chief among them are the promises of a Messiah, Jesus Christ, who came into the world as a child in Bethlehem and who will return in glory on the last day to judge all people.

When James wrote that “The prayer of a righteous person is powerful and effective” (James 5:16), he was not referencing any promises or covenants that God had made with Old Testament Israel. While James goes on in the next verse (v. 17) to provide an example of powerful and effective prayer in the person of Elijah, an Old Testament prophet, the context of James 5 does not limit powerful and effective prayer to Old Testament followers of the Lord.

Knowing the context of the quote in your question would probably help us understand the point the person was trying to make. As it stands, your quote lists a statement of fact—that prayer is powerful and effective—and a statement about promises made to Old Testament Israel and their applicability to Christians today. By themselves, the two statements are not accurately connected.

Can you tell me how it was decided what books to include in the New Testament? For example, Paul wrote letters to believers in Corinth, to Timothy, etc. These letters were kept somewhere, by someone, and many years later another "someone" was led to include them in the NT. Obviously the Holy Spirit did the guiding, and I'm not questioning the fact the Scriptures are the inspired Word of God. Rather, I am confused about the machinations involved/how/why were certain letters/books kept and assembled, and decided to be included? Additionally, how were questions like those associated the book of James resolved, and how was the book of Hebrews kept and decided to be included when we don't even know who wrote it? Sorry to be so long winded and rambling with this question.

Your questions address the topic of “biblical canonicity,” and much has been written on the subject. In short, let me emphasize the following points.

All the New Testament books had been written by the end of the first century A.D. The New Testament canon was complete because God had established it. When written, the New Testament books did not exist as a completed “set.” The gathering and collecting of New Testament books can be attributed to the apostles, who themselves wrote at the inspiration of the Holy Spirit (2 Peter 1:21). The apostles were aware of each other’s writings (2 Peter 3:15-16) and looked for Christians to value those writings as God’s word (Colossians 4:16; 1 Thessalonians 5:27). The apostles alerted Christians to beware of writings that were purported to be from God but were not (2 Thessalonians 2:1-2; 3:17; 1 John 4:1).

As the early Christians discussed the New Testament canon and debated which writings were authoritative and which were not, they considered who the human author was, whether there was widespread and universal acceptance of the writing beyond the original recipients, whether or not the church used the writings in its public worship services (as it did with Old Testament writings), and if its content agreed with the Old Testament canon. But more than anything, it was the internal testimony of the New Testament writings that convinced Christians which books God had written through people (John 6:63; Hebrews 4:12).

The subject of biblical canonicity includes the history of people who spoke against or questioned certain books of the Bible. Hebrews and James, the books you cited, are two of the seven New Testament books that have a track record of being questioned or opposed by people throughout the years. When we keep in mind the original recipients of the book of James, its emphasis on a living faith is completely understandable, and in no way contradicts the Bible’s teaching of justification by faith alone, without deeds (Romans 3:28). The book of Hebrews is not alone in not having a human author definitively identified with it; there are other biblical books like that. In those cases, we simply have to say that God did not see it as being important for us to know who the human author was. Ultimately, God is the author of all the books of the Bible.

I cannot pretend to provide an exhaustive treatment on the canon with my response to your questions. For that reason, you would benefit from reading other resources on this topic. I can suggest Bible: God’s Inspired, Inerrant Word. It is available from Northwestern Publishing House. Free resources on this topic are available at the essay file of Wisconsin Lutheran Seminary’s web site. The language in some of the essays could get technical, but there is a wealth of good information there.

The way in which God gave us his word and preserved it to this day is truly remarkable. We are thankful for that. Above all, we are thankful for the content of God’s word: it shows us the Savior we have in Jesus Christ.

I am involved in a discussion of the gospel as presented already in Genesis: “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel” (Genesis 3:15). What are other Bible passages that substantiate the reason we teach this Genesis 3:15 passage as the first evidence of God's unfathomable love for mankind - the Gospel?

Romans 16:20 speaks of Jesus’ saving work in light of Genesis 3:15: “The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet.” Revelation 20:2 describes Satan as “that ancient serpent” whom God controls and eventually puts out of commission.

The Bible explains that Jesus’ mission in coming to this world as true man was to defeat Satan (Matthew 4:1-11; John 12:31; 1 John 3:8-13; Revelation 12:9).

With the rest of the Old Testament prophecies of the Messiah in mind, and in light of the New Testament accounts of Jesus fulfilling all those prophecies, it is clear that God’s promise to Adam and Eve in Genesis 3:15 was the first promise of the Savior.

If we need any more proof that Genesis 3:15 speaks of the first Gospel promise, all we need do is look at Satan’s actions after that promise was given: he was engaged in a relentless but futile effort to destroy the ancestral line of the Messiah and then to kill the Christchild himself. Satan understood what God’s promise in Genesis 3:15 was all about.

How thankful we can be that God gave sinners one promise of a Savior after another. And then, “when the set time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under the law, to redeem those under the law, that we might receive adoption to sonship” (Galatians 4:4-5).

Some people use Numbers 3:15 and Leviticus 27:6 as passages that support abortion. The reasoning is that since the baby is under one month old (the lowest age used in these passages), then it is OK to abort the baby. What is the Christian response to this?

The Bible verses of course do not in any way support abortion. The verses speak of the amount of money a person would pay the priests in order to redeem, to buy back, an infant who had been dedicated to the Lord in a solemn vow (Leviticus 27:6) and the minimum age for the census of the Levites that Moses was going to undertake (Number 3:15). The mere mention of children being one month old in these passages does not in any way suggest that human life that is less than one-month old is expendable and can be aborted. (I really have to wonder if those same people also think that the Bible verses in question give them God’s permission to kill infants up to their one-month birthday.)

Biblical references to children who were one-month old does not in any way mean that God did not consider them to be human beings until that point in life. Consider God’s command for baby boys to be circumcised when they were one week old (Leviticus 12:3). Consider how the Bible describes God’s involvement in giving us life in the womb (Psalm 139:13-16). Consider how in Exodus 21:22-24 God even spelled out the consequences for any injuries done to mothers and their unborn children. Notice how the phrase “life for life” in verse 23 reflects the truth that God views life in the womb as important of his protection as life at other stages.

The Christian response to people viewing Leviticus 27:6 and Numbers 3:15 as support for abortion is this: God considers human life precious, no matter at what stage it might be. God wants human life protected so that people can come into contact with his word and enjoy the converting work of the Holy Spirit. “You shall not murder” (Exodus 20:13) applies to the unborn, infants, the elderly and everyone in between.

Should anyone believe when they are told a certain exact spot in Bethlehem is where the Christ was born, or that such and such a tomb is where He laid after his crucifixion? Can anyone be certain of these claims? Isn't it enough that we know that it all happened? Isn't it something that we go on faith about, rather having to know what we are told are the correct locations? A lot is often made of particular sites in the what they call the Holy Lands.

You said it well: it is enough to know that Jesus did what the Bible says.

We do not know with 100% certainty where the exact sites are where those events in Jesus’ earthly life and ministry took place. Some proposed locations seem more plausible than others, but finally we do not know.

What we know from Scripture is this: “While they were there [in Bethlehem], the time came for the baby to be born, and she gave birth to her firstborn, a son” (Luke 2:6). What we know from Scripture is this: “At the place where Jesus was crucified, there was a garden, and in the garden a new tomb, in which no one had ever been laid. Because it was the Jewish day of Preparation and since the tomb was nearby, they laid Jesus there” (John 19:41-42). And from that tomb Jesus emerged alive three days later.

When it comes to our salvation, the “who” and “what” are important. The specific “where” is not. Have a blessed Christmas!

Who were the authors of the books of the Bible?

God used some 40 men (apostles and prophets, Ephesians 2:20) to write the books of the Bible. The lives of those men spanned a timeline of about 1,600 years (1500 B.C. to 100 A.D.). Some of the names of those men are very familiar to us: Moses, David, Paul. Other writers are less familiar: Obadiah, Habakkuk. Some Bible writers were kings (David, Solomon); others were shepherds (Moses, Amos). The writers of some books of the Bible are unknown to us: for example, 1 & 2 Kings and Hebrews.

While God used a variety of people to write the books of the Bible over a long period of time, the writings they produced came from God. Through the miracle of inspiration, God led those men to write exactly what he wanted them to write (2 Timothy 3:16; 2 Peter 1:21)—down to the very last word (1 Corinthians 2:13).

If you are interested in learning more about the human authors of the books of the Bible, Northwestern Publishing House offers some good resources, such as this one.

My question is about so called mediums and people who say they can see ghosts or talk to dead people. I know there are people out there who are hucksters and they know they are conning people. I want to know about the people who really believe they are listening and talking to dead people. Is this Satan who is doing this?

The connection between mediums and Satan is so well established that God warned his Old Testament people numerous times about mediums: “Let no one be found among you who sacrifices his son or daughter in the fire, who practices divination or sorcery, interprets omens, engages in witchcraft, or casts spells, or who is a medium or spiritist or who consults the dead. Anyone who does these things is detestable to the Lord…” (Deuteronomy 18:10-12) “Do not turn to mediums or seek out spiritists…” (Leviticus 19:31) “When men tell you to consult mediums and spiritists, who whisper and mutter, should not a people inquire of their God? Why consult the dead on behalf of the living? To the law and to the testimony! If they do not speak according to this word, they have no light of dawn” (Isaiah 8:19-20). Jesus’ followers listen to his voice, not Satan’s (John 10:27).

What does "their god is their stomach" mean in Philippians 3:19? Is this referring to gluttony?

It could refer to gluttony. It can refer in general to any craving of the sinful nature that is elevated over God. That is idolatry.

Idolatry takes place when people love something or someone more than God. In his Large Catechism Martin Luther stated this regarding the first commandment: “That now, I say, upon which you set your heart and put your trust is properly your god.”

Rather than making the desires of the sinful nature a god, God’s will is this: “Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind” (Matthew 22:37). Seeking to do God’s will and moved by gratitude for his forgiving love, we strive to do just that.

Does the land of Israel belong to the Jews?

There is nothing in the Bible that helps answer your question. Scripture does not speak of the modern nation of Israel or the rights of a particular group of people to a specific geographical area.

I previously asked if the land of Israel belongs to the Jews. You stated that the Bible does not provide any evidence for or against this question. However, Genesis 12:7 seems to contradict your assertion. Can you provide additional background on the meaning and context of this verse? Thank you in advance!

Genesis 12:7 reflects two promises that the Lord gave Abram: that he would have offspring and that his offspring would, one day, live in the land of Canaan.

Because God always speaks the truth (Numbers 23:19), those were not idle words. God fulfilled his promises: giving Abram offspring and giving the promised land to his offspring. However, there is nothing in the verse that speaks of Abram’s offspring having perpetual ownership of the land; nor does that or any other verse of the Bible speak of the modern nation of Israel.

If you would like to do more reading on this subject, this paper contains good material. Part III is especially pertinent for your questions.

Where can I find the answer to Christ is God ?

If you are looking for Bible verses that state that Jesus Christ is God, here are some:

Matthew 1:22-23 – “All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: ‘The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel’ (which means ‘God with us’).”

John 1:1 – “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”

John 20:28 – “Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”

Romans 9:5 – “Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of the Messiah, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen.”

Colossians 2:9 – “For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form…”

1 John 5:20 – “We know also that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is true by being in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life.”

A particular WELS social media group recently posted an article regarding "The Wartburg Project." The Wartburg Project is a 501(c)(3) parasynodical organization that consists of WELS/ELS pastors and professors that are united in fellowship and working on producing a new Bible translation called Evangelical Heritage Version (EHV). The website explains that this is another translation/revision where Hebrew and Greek texts and templates are being used as references. Why do we need another translation? Is WELS moving toward EHV? What is wrong with the NIV? Thank you so much for your time.

Much has been written recently about your questions. There is an entire section on the WELS Resource Center on the topic of Bible translations. This link will take you there.

WELS has never had an official Bible translation. We have used NIV84 for years in our publications, but with the introduction of NIV11 (2011), Zondervan Publishing has asked Northwestern Publishing House to discontinue its use of NIV84 in future projects.

A synodical convention resolution directed Northwestern Publishing House to pursue an “eclectic approach” in its publications. That means that editors and authors can choose the Bible translation that is best suited for their work. (Individual congregations of course have always had freedom to use translations of their choosing.)

As you noted, The Wartburg Project is a parasynodical organization in fellowship with ELS and WELS. It has an agreement with Northwestern Publishing House to print and distribute its translation.

Again, a great deal has been written on the topic of Bible translations recently. With this forum, I cannot do justice to all the activity and all the writing in this area, so I encourage you to read the information on the links provided.

A major takeaway from your questions is that God has blessed our church body with a great love for his word and a great passion to use Bible translations that are faithful to the original languages and that speak clearly and accurately to people today.

How do you interpret 1 John 1:7 from 1 John 1: 9 ?

1 John 1:7 – “But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin.”

1 John 1:9 – “If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness.”

Jesus was our perfect substitute in life and in death, and the shedding of his blood was necessary for the forgiveness of sins (Hebrews 9:22). The first passage explains that when people are joined to Jesus Christ in faith, they enjoy forgiveness for all their sins.

The second passage teaches us that when we sin and confess our sins to God (as Jesus taught us in the Lord’s Prayer, Matthew 6:12), our loving God forgives our sins. Our confession of sins does not fall on deaf ears.

Put together, the two passages assure Christians that they have full and free forgiveness through Jesus Christ. Truly, “In this Christian church he [God] daily and fully forgives all sins to me and all believers.” (From Martin Luther’s explanation of the Third Article of the Apostles’ Creed)

Dispensationalism: what does WELS believe about this?

Allow me to pass along the response to a previous question like this:

“Dispensationalism is a false interpretive approach to Scripture developed by John Nelson Darby. Darby divided history into various periods characterized by a new test of natural man by God, each ending in man’s failure. He proposed that God had two distinctive plans for history, one for the nation of Israel (God’s earthly people), the other for the church (God’s heavenly people). When Israel rejected Jesus, God created the church out of the Gentiles or non-Jews. Darby proposed that God would ‘rapture’ the church before the ‘great tribulation’ and eventually set up a political, millennial kingdom in Israel where Christ would rule physically and visibly.

“Dispensationalism was popularized in America through a preaching tour conducted by Darby and a series of prophetic conferences known as the Niagara Conferences. It received its most widely accepted form through the work of Cyrus I. Scofield, popularized in the Scofield Reference Bible. Scofield proposed seven different dispensations (innocence, conscience, human government, promise, law, grace, and kingdom). This approach to Scripture and the study of the last times is the most common view taught in fundamentalist and evangelical schools and churches.”

WELS rejects dispensationalism and its errors associated with the end times. We state in This We Believe: “We reject the teaching that Christ will reign on earth for a thousand years in a physical, earthly kingdom. This teaching (millennialism) has no valid scriptural basis and falsely leads Christians to set their hopes upon an earthly kingdom of Christ (John 18:36). We reject as unscriptural any claim that Christians will be physically removed, or ‘raptured,’ from the earth prior to judgment day. We likewise reject as unscriptural any claim that all the Jews will be converted in the final days.”

John 3:16 says that God so loved the world. 1 John 2:15 tells us not to love the world. How does the meaning of "the world" differ in these two contexts?

The apostle John used the same Greek word for “world” in both verses you cited. That word can have various meanings like “universe,” “world,” “the inhabitants of the earth,” “ungodly people,” “that part of the world that is opposed to God” – to mention a few. As you indicated, the context will determine the particular meaning.

John 3:16 occurs in the context of Jesus speaking to Nicodemus about the snake-bitten Israelites who received healing through the bronze snake on the pole. Jesus explained to Nicodemus how that healing account pointed ahead to his redeeming work: “ Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the wilderness, so the Son of Man must be lifted up, that everyone who believes may have eternal life in him” (John 3:14-15). Then comes “the gospel in a nutshell.” “For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life” (John 3:16). “Everyone” in verse 15 and “whoever” in verse 16 are not limiting in any way, are they? “Everyone,” “whoever” they might be, can find salvation in Jesus because God loved the world, the inhabitants of the earth, and sent his Son Jesus into the world to be Savior of all. God does want all to be saved. We find that truth stated elsewhere in Scripture (1 Timothy 2:4, for example).

When it comes to 1 John 2:15, the context paints a contrast between loving the sinful world (“the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life,” verse 16) and loving God. Christians are to love God more than anyone or anything else in life. That is the heart of the first commandment. God calls on us to “reject every kind of evil” (1 Thessalonians 5:22). We are not to love the “world” in that sense.

To pull everything together, then, the “world” in John 3:16 refers to the people of this earth, while the “world” in 1 John 2:15 speaks of anything in this life that is opposed to God and his will.

What is the WELS' stand on clairvoyance, light beings and spiritual energy?

Our “stand” is following what Scripture says. We find instructions like these in the Bible:

“Do not turn to mediums or seek out spiritists, for you will be defiled by them. I am the LORD your God” (Leviticus 19:31).

“Let no one be found among you who sacrifices their son or daughter in the fire, who practices divination or sorcery, interprets omens, engages in witchcraft, or casts spells, or who is a medium or spiritist or who consults the dead. Anyone who does these things is detestable to the LORD” (Deuteronomy 18:10-12).

“When someone tells you to consult mediums and spiritists, who whisper and mutter, should not a people inquire of their God? Why consult the dead on behalf of the living? Consult God’s instruction and the testimony of warning. If anyone does not speak according to this word, they have no light of dawn” (Isaiah 8:19-20).

We look to God and his word for direction in life. “Your word is a lamp for my feet, a light on my path” (Psalm 119:105).

Can we say for sure, or not, that aborted babies go to heaven? Jeremiah 19 says the children sacrificed were innocent. In Mark 10 Jesus blesses the little ones. I am not aware of Jesus ever blessing anyone not in His kingdom. Yet, Psalm 51 says we are sinful at conception. Can a baby be sinful and innocent at the same time?

In the Bible God does not specifically address your first question. If he has not spoken, we cannot speak for him. We know what God says in the Bible: people are sinful and have a need for forgiveness. Your reference to Psalm 51 addresses that. God also explains in the Bible that he is both just and forgiving (Exodus 34:6-7). God declares that faith saves and unbelief condemns (Mark 16:16). He reveals to us what means he uses to create faith in a person’s heart. When we look at God’s revealed will to us and cannot find answers to our questions (like the one you posed), we bow in humble reverence to God (Romans 11:33-36) and leave unborn children in the hands of a wise, loving God whose ways are perfect (2 Samuel 22:31).

Just for the sake of clarification, the “innocent” in Jeremiah 19 refers to people who, through no fault of their own, were sacrificed in idolatrous worship. Their description does not pertain to a natural spiritual condition of some kind. We speak of “innocent” victims today: people who lose their lives through someone else’s violent actions, for example.

You may not have this in mind with your last question, but a baptized baby is sinful and innocent at the same time (so are the child’s Christian parents). We are sinners and saints in the eyes of God.

Your question about abortion is a reminder for Christians to “Speak up for those who cannot speak for themselves” (Proverbs 31:8) and to testify that life is a precious gift from God, who alone has the right to end life (Deuteronomy 32:39). You will find much good information on this topic from Christian Life Resources, an agency within WELS.

I was recently diagnosed with a condition that will make it difficult for me to get pregnant, and also carry a pregnancy to term. After trying to conceive for some time and one miscarriage, the doctor has begun discussing the possibility of IVF with my husband and me. Is there any biblical guidance for our situation? My heart is open to adoption, but I'm not sure that my husband's is at this point.

Christian Life Resources, an agency within WELS, has helpful information for you and your husband. This link will take you to the section of their web site that pertains to your question.

As you have questions about the materials you read, do contact your pastor. He is in a position to offer biblical guidance.

God bless you and your husband!

How does replacement theology define the church and why is it important?

Some people use the term “Replacement Theology” to mean that the Christian Church has “replaced” Israel as God’s chosen people. Other people use that term to maintain that God cannot possibly abandon Israel and so he will establish an earthly kingdom for Israel during the millennium.

Romans 9-11 helps us understand things correctly. That section of Scripture explains that the Christian Church is not a replacement of Israel but a continuation of the real Israel. God explains through the apostle Paul that when it comes to Jews, it is not ancestral heritage that saves (Romans 9:6-8). It is faith in Jesus Christ, the promised Messiah, that saves. And so in that part of the Bible God pictures Jews who reject Jesus, the promised Messiah, as branches broken off a tree, and Gentiles who are led to believe in Jesus as the Messiah as branches grafted to a tree (Romans 11:17-24). Those who have the faith of Abraham—trusting in the promised Savior, Jesus Christ—are the real Israel (Romans 9:8)

I was recently talking with a family member who has changed churches from a Lutheran church to a Baptist church. While we were discussing his reasons, one of the points that came up is a question that I have about the 10 Commandments. In the Bible, there are clearly 10 Commandments. When WELS students study the 10 Commandments in Luther's Small Catechism, the commandments are not the same as the way they are written in the Bible. Why is this? My family member believes that this is one of the ways in which WELS churches do not follow the Bible. It is hard to argue with that. Why doesn't the synod just teach the commandments as they are written in the Bible?

The “Ten Commandments” of Exodus 34:28 are literally “Ten Words.” God spoke ten “words” that constituted his commandments, but he did not indicate which was the “first word” or the “tenth word.” As a result, there have been three different numbering systems of the commandments throughout the years (the Jewish system, the Roman Catholic and Lutheran system, and the Reformed and Greek Orthodox system).

Since God did not specifically state which is the “second commandment” or which is the “ninth commandment,” it makes little difference if people attach a different number to a commandment or “word.” The content is not changed.

Our church body is following the Bible in teaching God’s law. We are following the Bible in teaching God’s gospel. We are following the Bible in teaching and administering baptism and the Lord’s Supper.

It is that last thought that helps put your family member’s concern in perspective. You would do well to ask your family member what his or her Baptist church teaches about baptism and the Lord’s Supper. By leaving a Lutheran church and joining a Baptist church, your family member has left a church that teaches accurately from Scripture that baptism and the Lord’s Supper are means of grace through which God offers and gives us forgiveness of sins, life and salvation, and instead joined a church that teaches that baptism and the Lord’s Supper are mere symbols of God’s grace.

How we number the commandments is an adiaphoron—a matter on which the Bible is silent. It is far different with baptism and the Lord’s Supper. People have no right to change what God has said about those gracious acts. I encourage you to have a conversation with your family member on that important subject.

What is the difference between a spirit and a soul?

While there are some who believe that human beings consist of three distinct parts—body, soul and spirit—the Bible most often describes people as consisting of two parts: body and soul/spirit. The Bible most often uses “soul” and “spirit” interchangeably.

Overall, the Bible uses “soul” in relationship to the body, while it uses “spirit” in a person’s relationship to God.

I'm confused on Bible passage about souls under the altar. I believe it's in Revelation. I know we do not believe in purgatory or seven years of fire, but would appreciate what "souls under the altar" refers to. Thank you.

You are asking about content from Revelation chapter six. In that part of Revelation, the apostle John is relaying information about what we can expect to see taking place on this earth until the day the Lord returns visibly and in glory. What we can expect (Revelation 6:9-11) is that followers of the Lord will be persecuted.

The apostle John knew about persecution firsthand. When he penned Revelation, he was an exile on the island of Patmos because of his faith (Revelation 1:9). We learn in Revelation 6:9-11 that some Christians will experience the most severe form of persecution: paying for their testimony about Jesus with their lives. Jesus provided similar information in Matthew 24:9.

Some of the first recipients of the book of Revelation (those who belonged to the churches listed in chapters two and three) may have had family members or Christian friends who were killed for their faith. Did their martyrdom mean that they were to be pitied? Were those Christians who were killed for the faith now lacking anything? Not at all. They and all martyred followers of the Lord are described as being “under the altar” (Revelation 6:9).

Think of the symbolism associated with altars in biblical times and altars in our churches today: altars symbolize the presence of God. Now think of the meaning of that vision in Revelation chapter six. Christians who had been killed for the faith are described as being under the altar of God in heaven. There is of course no need for an altar in heaven to symbolize the presence of God. Christians who die in the faith, no matter how their earthly lives end, enter the presence of God. But remember that Revelation was written for people still living on earth, so in this vision we find an altar in heaven that represents the presence of God.

This vision in Revelation is packed with tremendous meaning and comfort. When Christians die, they enter the presence of God in heaven. They are not merely near an object—an altar—that represents the presence of God; they are in the presence of God. They are free from all spiritual enemies. They are safe and secure forever.

This vision demonstrates the purpose of the book of Revelation: it is designed to provide comfort and strength to God’s people.

Can angels sin now?

Scripture speaks only of the sin, the rebellion, of certain angels that took place after their creation (Jude 6; 2 Peter 2:4) and before the temptation of Adam and Eve. Those angels are now in hell and will spend eternity apart from God (Matthew 25:41).

The Bible does speak of “elect angels” (1 Timothy 5:21). We usually understand “elect” in this case to refer to the holy angels who did not rebel against God after their creation and who cannot sin against him now. We speak of these angels being confirmed in their holiness.

These are the angels God uses for our good in everyday life (Hebrews 1:14).

I want to purchase a Bible with explanations from an accurate source. Do you have a publication that you could recommend? Who are your trusted publishers? Thanks.

The publisher for our church body is Northwestern Publishing House.

You can find numerous study Bibles on their website at nph.net. Among the noteworthy titles are the Concordia Self-Study Bible and the 41-volume set of The People’s Bible Series. Just search for those titles and they should come up.

Could you please provide me with some insight or explanation on Revelation 4:1-11? Thank you!

While there are many details in Revelation chapter four—some of which are easier to understand than others—the overall meaning is that the apostle John was describing a vision of heaven that God granted him.

In the vision, John witnessed the majesty of God in heaven. He saw the faithful people of God standing in the presence of God. He observed God’s creation giving continual, perfect praise to the Triune God. It is a magnificent scene that John describes!

The wonderful thing is that you and I are not limited to reading about John’s description of heaven. Because you and I also have the promise of Revelation 2:10 (“Be faithful, even to the point of death, and I will give you life as your victor’s crown.”), we can count on being in God’s presence when this life ends. That is because all of God’s promises are “Yes” in Christ (2 Corinthians 1:20).

In the new heaven and new earth, who lives where?

Your question is referencing Isaiah 65:17; 66:22; 2 Peter 3:13; and Revelation 21:1. The Bible tells us that God is preparing a wonderful, perfect eternity for us, but does not get into specifics like your question is seeking.

The most important part of our eternity is that we will spend it with God. He guarantees that. Jesus said, “And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to be with me that you also may be where I am” (John 14:3).

We will leave the details of our eternity with God in his hands, knowing and trusting that we will be the recipients of his lavish love forever (cf. Revelation 21 and 22).

If you are interested, this link will take you to an article in Forward in Christ that addressed a question similar to yours.

Professor Pope wrote in FIC this month teaching about Christ's time in the tomb. He said that Christ's soul went to heaven (paradise) immediately upon his death, while the corporeal body went into the grave. However, in the Creeds that we repeat every service we state that Christ descended into hell. The Small Catechism, section 143, also teaches the Jesus went to hell. My question boils down to which teaching is correct? Both use the Scripture as supporting their statement. I am quite confused now though I thought I actually knew something. Please expound on the teaching.

What I wrote in the Forward in Christ column and what we speak in the Creed are not at odds. Let me explain.

Death is the separation of body and soul (Ecclesiastes 12:7). When Jesus died, his body remained on earth, while his soul went to heaven (Luke 23:46). The same was true for the penitent thief on the cross (Luke 23:43).

On Easter Sunday morning Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in Joseph’s tomb. The Lord—body and soul—then descended into hell to declare his victory over Satan and his forces (1 Peter 3:18-20). After that, the risen Lord appeared to people here on earth.

The wording of the Apostles’ Creed can make it seem like Jesus descended into hell before his body and soul were reunited. When the Creed states that Jesus “descended into hell,” it is doing so on the basis that Jesus’ body and soul had already been reunited in the tomb. When the Creed states that Jesus “rose again from the dead,” it is referring to Jesus’ appearances to people on earth. When we speak the words of the Apostles’ Creed, we do not mean to say that Jesus descended into hell immediately after his death and burial.

I hope this explanation removes some of the confusion.

2 Peter speaks about the new heaven and new earth. What does that mean exactly? I understand that the earth will be destroyed, but a new heaven too?

What will be helpful is understanding that “heaven” can also be translated as “sky.” Cf. Genesis 1:1.

It might be beneficial to read a column in Forward in Christ that addressed a question like yours. This link will take you to that column.

Your question about the future is an encouragement for us to look forward with joy and confidence to the eternal home God has promised us!

In the Old Testament it doesn't seem clear to me that there is a heaven and hell as distinctly referred to in the New Testament. The Old Testament refers to the dead going down to the pit and it is described almost as a place of nothingness or non-life. It also doesn't seem like heaven is the clear goal as it does in the New Testament. Can you share some insight on this please?

You are observing correctly that, with regard to hell, the Old Testament writers used words that could mean “the grave,” “the condition of being dead” and “hell.” The immediate context determines how the words are best translated. Old Testament writers clearly taught that people who rejected the only true God and the Messiah he promised would experience God’s eternal wrath (Isaiah 66:24; Daniel 12:2).

At the same time, Old Testament writers spoke of people enjoying God’s eternal blessings through faith in him. The writers described heaven in different ways: being at God’s right hand (Psalm 16:11), dwelling in the house of the Lord (Psalm 23:6), being with God in glory (Psalm 73:24), a place of joy (Isaiah 26:19) and the enjoyment of everlasting life (Daniel 12:1-3), for example.

Heaven was definitely a clear goal in Old Testament times: on God’s part and on the part of his followers. Consider how God, through the prophet Ezekiel, passionately and repeatedly expressed his desire to bless people with life rather than punish them for their sins (Ezekiel 18:23, 32; 33:11). Think of how Job “yearned” to see God after he died (Job 19:25-27).

Because of the unity of Scripture, you and I can see God’s teaching about heaven and hell in both the Old Testament and the New Testament.

If you are interested in reading more explanations on these topics, Northwestern Publishing offers a book that is appropriately titled Heaven and Hell: Eternal Life, Eternal Punishment.

I think in the sermon on the mount Jesus states: "Blessed are the poor in spirit." What does poor in spirit mean?

The expression you have in mind is how Jesus began the sermon on the mount: “Blessed are the poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven” (Matthew 5:3).

Being poor “in spirit” is different than being poor “in body.” The later kind of poverty exists when there is not enough money to make ends meet. Being “poor in spirit” is another kind of poverty. That poverty is one directly involving the soul; it is one of attitudes and beliefs.

When people are “poor in spirit,” they have right attitudes about themselves and God. They know and confess that they are sinners who cannot give anything to God for which he is obligated to repay them (Romans 11:35). When people are poor in spirit, they recognize and confess to God that they lack the perfection and holiness he demands of them (Luke 18:13). When people are poor in spirit, they do not approach God with their hands figuratively filled with their good deeds as if God should be impressed. No, it is just the opposite. The hymn writer put it this way: “Nothing in my hand I bring, Simply to thy cross I cling” (Christian Worship 389:3).

Simply confessing sins will not save anyone, but remember the audience in the sermon on the mount. The Lord was speaking to his followers, people who already were in the faith. To people who were poor in spirit and whose hearts were filled with repentance and faith in the promised Savior, the Lord could promise: “theirs is the kingdom of heaven” (Matthew 5:3).

After Martin Luther died, people discovered a scrap of paper in one of his pockets that had this message: “This is true. We are all beggars.” Christians are beggars. Through the Holy Spirit’s work in their hearts, Christians are “poor in spirit.” But through faith in Jesus, Christians enjoy the “riches of God’s grace” (Ephesians 1:7). Those who are poor before God are rich beyond measure!

Why was the devil (as a snake) in the Garden of Eden?

He was there to try to rob Adam and Eve of their perfect life with God (John 8:44). As a fallen angel doomed to eternal separation from God in hell (2 Peter 2:4), Satan’s motto is “misery loves company.” His mission is to get as many people as possible to share in his fate (1 Peter 5:8).

How thankful we are that Jesus came to defeat the devil (1 John 3:8). In the Garden of Eden God prophesied that victory (Genesis 3:15). Jesus fulfilled that prophecy when he resisted all of Satan’s temptations, paid the penalty of sin on the cross and rose triumphantly on Easter Sunday.

Crushed but not yet out of commission, Satan remains our enemy. We need to resist him (1 Peter 5:8-9), and we can with the spiritual weapons God gives us (Ephesians 6:10-18; James 4:7).

What is doctrine? Is doctrine absolute truth? Thank you.

Doctrine is defined as “something that is taught.” In the context of the Bible, doctrine is what the Bible teaches about any number of subjects. Whatever the Bible’s teaching may be, it is true; it is always true.

When it comes to what people teach from the Bible, there is true or sound doctrine, and there is false doctrine. That explains why we see in the Bible God giving instructions like these to those who minister on his behalf: “Watch your life and doctrine closely. Persevere in them, because if you do, you will save both yourself and your hearers” (1 Timothy 4:16). “For the time will come when people will not put up with sound doctrine. Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear” (2 Timothy 4:3). “He must hold firmly to the trustworthy message as it has been taught, so that he can encourage others by sound doctrine and refute those who oppose it” (Titus 1:9). “You, however, must teach what is appropriate to sound doctrine” (Titus 2:1).

In the Lord's Prayer we pray "for thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory." What is meant by glory?

The words you are referencing are from the Doxology of the Lord’s Prayer. Doxology means “an expression of praise to God.” When we give praise to God, we give him glory (Psalm 115:1).

The following Scripture verse illustrates the nature of a doxology: “Yours, LORD, is the greatness and the power and the glory and the majesty and the splendor, for everything in heaven and earth is yours. Yours, LORD, is the kingdom; you are exalted as head over all” (1 Chronicles 29:11).

We close the Lord’s Prayer, then, by giving glory and praise to our Father in heaven.

So, I'm doing research because I want to become a Lutheran pastor. I was raised in an ELCA church, but the conservative pastor and congregation there don't represent the modern ELCA church. Now we go to a conservative, confessional Lutheran church since we moved. I was looking into your synod and I thought it was pretty neat, but then I found that you've accepted the NIV 2011. How can you, as a conservative, confessional synod, accept that?

What you found is not the complete picture on Bible translations and WELS. Allow me to pass along information from the 2015 Book of Reports and Memorials. This information was published in connection with our 2015 Synod Convention. The report from Northwestern Publishing House (NPH) included the following:

“NPH continues to pursue an ‘eclectic approach,’ as directed by synod resolution, utilizing the best translation for the context of any given work. In recent months NPH has faced challenges and opportunities in fulfilling this direction.

“Zondervan has asked NPH to discontinue use of NIV84 going forward. All works currently in development or already in print with NIV84 may contain the translation. However, no future works can include NIV84. NPH will utilize NIV11 in the future as one translation option. NPH will also utilize the English Standard Version (ESV) and the Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB) as translation options. We anticipate revisions to the HCSB as a result of the recommendations submitted by the WELS Translation Liaison Committee.

“Selected from among other potential publishers, an agreement was reached between the Wartburg Project and NPH to print and distribute the Wartburg Project Bible translation. As translation work continues by the Wartburg Project, it is anticipated that a New Testament and Psalms edition will be ready for release in fall 2017. A complete Bible will be introduced at a future date yet to be determined.

“NPH has not and will not participate in the translation or editing work involved in the Wartburg Project translation. Although NPH will publish the Wartburg Project translation, it will not be the official NPH translation or sole Bible translation offered by NPH or utilized in NPH materials. NPH will continue to pursue an ‘eclectic approach,’ as directed by synod resolution, utilizing the best translation for the context of any given work. The Wartburg Project translation may be one potential translation option among others. Likewise, publishing of the Wartburg Project translation does not indicate that this is the official Bible translation of WELS. Once the Wartburg Project translation is published, NPH will welcome reviews of the translation before the text is used in other publications.”

WELS has never had an official Bible translation. The recent discussions in our church body regarding Bible translations have dealt with which translations to use in our publications. While walking together as a synod, congregations enjoy Christian freedom in the use of Bible translations.

If you have additional questions about training for the public ministry in our synod, please contact Martin Luther College, our synod’s college of ministry, or Wisconsin Lutheran Seminary, our church body’s seminary. God bless you.

 

I've done some research on why we include the "long ending" to the Lord's Prayer. I'm writing an article about this and want to make sure I state things as "WELS accurate." :) Specifically, why don't Catholics include it and others do? I read one response that said at the time of the Reformation it was added so the Catholic church, not wanting to identify with Luther et al, made the decision to not include it when said during mass.

We find the Lord speaking the prayer that bears his name twice: in the sermon on the mount (Matthew 6:9-13) and on the occasion of his disciples asking for guidance on how to pray (Luke 11:2-4). The reality we face is that the original manuscripts of Matthew’s gospel and Luke’s gospel are not extant. That is the case with all original manuscripts of Bible books. We have copies and copies of the original manuscripts.

The copies of Luke’s gospel do not contain a doxology. Some copies of Matthew’s gospel contain a doxology, other copies do not. Consequently, we cannot say with certainty whether or not Jesus spoke the doxology.

In that regard, then, it is not a matter of right or wrong to speak or omit the doxology. Churches have freedom in which “version” they use. If Jesus did not speak the doxology, those words that are reminiscent of 1 Chronicles 29:10-11 could very well have been a liturgical addition by the early Christian church. Our Holy Communion liturgy from the 1941 hymnal reflected that when the pastor spoke the address and petitions of the Lord’s Prayer and the congregation sang the Doxology.

It is interesting to note that the Small and Large Catechisms that Martin Luther wrote contained the Lord’s Prayer without the Doxology. The Doxology was added to the Catechisms after Luther’s death. Also, when Luther revised the Mass, he included an instruction that “After the sermon shall follow a public paraphrase of the Lord’s Prayer.” That paraphrase did not include a Doxology.

God’s blessings on your writing!

How does the Holy Spirit dwell in us?

The Holy Spirit dwells in Christians through the saving faith he created in their hearts by the gospel. When God brings people to faith, he does so through his Holy Spirit, “whom he poured out on us generously through Jesus Christ our Savior” (Titus 3:6).

Twice in his first letter to the Corinthians the apostle Paul asked a question that reminds Christians that the Holy Spirit lives in them. “Don’t you know that you yourselves are God’s temple and that God’s Spirit dwells in your midst?” (1 Corinthians 3:16) “Do you not know that your bodies are temples of the Holy Spirit, who is in you, whom you have received from God?” (1 Corinthians 6:19)

The same apostle reminds us that the indwelling of the Holy Spirit signifies God’s ownership of us: “And you also were included in Christ when you heard the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation. When you believed, you were marked in him with a seal, the promised Holy Spirit, who is a deposit guaranteeing our inheritance until the redemption of those who are God’s possession—to the praise of his glory” (Ephesians 1:13-14).

Here are a few other passages that speak of the Holy Spirit dwelling in Christians: “Now it is God who makes both us and you stand firm in Christ. He anointed us, set his seal of ownership on us, and put his Spirit in our hearts as a deposit, guaranteeing what is to come” (2 Corinthians 1:21-22). “Because you are his sons, God sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, the Spirit who calls out, ‘Abba, Father’” (Galatians 4:6). “And in him you too are being built together to become a dwelling in which God lives by his Spirit” (Ephesians 2:22). “The one who keeps God’s commands lives in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us” (1 John 3:24).

Where in the Bible can I find out about ashes on Ash Wednesday?

While you will find references to “ashes” in the Bible, you will of course not find any mention of Ash Wednesday. Christians have, in God-given freedom, established a church calendar, including Ash Wednesday.

As a church custom, the imposition of ashes (as it is called) is an adiaphoron. God has not commanded it nor forbidden it. In Christian freedom, we may utilize the practice or forego it. The custom of putting ashes on the foreheads of Christians on Ash Wednesday has been in use for centuries. While it is a practice that many still associate only with Roman Catholicism, it has grown in popularity with Protestant churches in recent years.

The purpose of imposing ashes on the foreheads of worshipers on Ash Wednesday is to have a visual reminder that the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23), and death means our bodies return to dust from which Adam was made (Genesis 3:19). As ashes are biblical pictures of repentance (Job 42:6; Matthew 11:21), the use of ashes eventually became associated with Lent, a penitential season of the church year. When the ashes form the shape of a cross on the foreheads of worshipers, there is also a visible reminder for others about the precious cross of Christ. If practical, this year’s palm fronds from Palm Sunday worship services are burned to become ashes for next year’s Ash Wednesday observance.

Why did God choose Judas to betray Jesus?

Jesus’ foreknowledge that Judas would betray him (for example, Matthew 26:21-25) does not mean that Judas was chosen or forced to betray Jesus. There is a difference between foreknowledge and foreordaining. While the Lord knew what was going to happen, and while he was going to use that event for his plans, he did not force the event to take place.

I have these notes written down from a seminary class from years ago: “The foreknowledge of God does not bring necessity to the event. It only means God knows what is going to happen. As our memory of past events does not necessitate an event, so God’s knowledge of future events does not necessitate an event. Our knowledge of when the next lunar eclipse is going to take place does not make it happen. The foreknowledge depends on the event; the event does not depend on the foreknowledge.”

Finally, it is helpful to keep in mind how Jesus addressed Judas at the time of the betrayal:  “Friend” (Matthew 26:50).

Could you please provide a biblical evaluation of John Piper's Christian hedonism?

I do not have any review to which I can point you, so let me offer a brief response.

“Hedonism” is usually defined as the idea that “pleasure or happiness is the highest good in life.” If you are thinking that sounds like the ancient Greek philosophy of Epicureanism, you are on the right track.

“How can there be something called ‘Christian hedonism?'” you ask. That is what John Piper tries to explain. He summarizes Christian hedonism this way: “God is most glorified in us when we are most satisfied in him.” On his web site he maintains: “Christian hedonism is biblical morality because it recognizes that obeying God is the only route to final and lasting happiness” [original emphasis]. To me, that is the crux of the problem: happiness depends on me and my obedience to the law of God.

Certainly, God promises to bless faithfulness on the part of his children (Matthew 5:3-10; Luke 6:38, for example), but the only route to final and lasting joy is through the gospel: the message that God has provided free and full salvation through his Son, Jesus Christ (John 3:16).

To me, glorifying God puts the emphasis on God (Revelation 14:7), not me and my efforts to obtain happiness.

Finally, it is helpful to know that Piper embraces Calvinist theology.

When Jesus died, his soul went directly to heaven. When did he enter hell and for how long? On the third day he rose from the dead, and 40 days later he ascended into heaven. I would like to get the event timeline straight. Thank you.

On the basis of 1 Peter 3:19-20: Jesus’ body and soul were reunited in the tomb “on the third day.” With body and soul, Jesus then descended into hell to proclaim to the inhabitants of hell his victory over Satan and hell and death.

After that, still “on the third day,” Jesus appeared to his followers on earth. Matthew, Mark, Luke, John and the apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 15) record those appearances.

Over a period of 40 days (Acts 1:3), Jesus appeared to his followers.

Then, Jesus ascended into heaven, withdrawing his visible presence from people.

Is Jonah, from the whale account, Simon Peter's father?

I take it that your question is occasioned by Matthew 16:17. “Jesus replied, ‘Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by flesh and blood, but by my Father in heaven.’” (The King James Version had rendered Peter’s identity as “Simon Barjona,” “Simon, son of Jonah.”) Jesus spoke those words after Peter confessed that Jesus is the Christ, the promised Savior, the Son of God. In that verse Jesus described Simon as “son of Jonah.” Elsewhere (John 1:42) Simon Peter is called “son of John.” “John” and “Jonah” reflect the variants, or slight differences, in the Greek text.

Simon Peter’s father was “John” or “Jonah.” Let’s say his name was Jonah. He was not the one after whom the Old Testament book is named. Simon Peter’s father and that Jonah only shared a common name. They were separated in time by about nine centuries.

Lastly, “whale” is not part of the Bible’s vocabulary regarding the Jonah of the Old Testament; “huge fish” is. But thanks for an interesting question.

It is a commonly held belief among elderly people that our world is in moral decline. It seems that I could either support or oppose this belief using logic and evidence (support: look at what disgusting things appear on social media compared to 10 years ago; oppose: people have always been sinful since sin first began), but what does Scripture reveal to us about the belief that the world, as a whole, is going into a gradual moral decline?

The apostle Paul provided a sobering picture of life in “the last days,” which the book of Hebrews calls the New Testament time period (Hebrews 1:2). “But mark this: There will be terrible times in the last days. People will be lovers of themselves, lovers of money, boastful, proud, abusive, disobedient to their parents, ungrateful, unholy, without love, unforgiving, slanderous, without self-control, brutal, not lovers of the good, treacherous, rash, conceited, lovers of pleasure rather than lovers of God” (2 Timothy 3:1-4)

While that is a general picture of life in the New Testament age, Jesus asked this haunting question after he narrated and explained one of his parables: “When the Son of Man comes, will he find faith on the earth?” (Luke 18:8) Rather than leading us to expect a golden age of Christianity as we head toward Judgment Day, the Bible prepares us for conditions that go from bad to worse.

Still, we do not fear. “Our Lord God Almighty reigns” (Revelation 19:6). The world is not spinning out of control. God remains our refuge and strength, even and especially when life is crumbling and unraveling (Psalm 46).

So what can you and I do in times like these? Cling firmly to God in faith through regular use of his word and sacrament (Hebrews 10:23-25). Shine the light of Christian faith for others to see and follow (Matthew 5:16). Share God’s word (Matthew 28:19-20). Pray for people everywhere (1 Timothy 2:1-4).

My friend has told me that the Bible has some mistranslations that make a day seem like an age. He also claims that this mistranslation has made it so that the flood does not mean the whole world but just a specific piece of land. He also claims that people of other races are not direct descendants of God's people and are inferior to white people. So, I am wondering, how do I combat this mistranslation error and that all people are God's people and that there were not people before Adam and Eve? Please let me know if you have any insight on how to combat this.

The burden of proof is on your friend. Ask him to demonstrate the supposed errors in Bible translations. Scripture is clear when it speaks of time periods, the worldwide flood of Noah’s day and the human race.

Have your friend consider Acts 17:24-27 and see the world’s “family tree.” Have your friend re-consider his prejudicial views toward other people in light of Acts 10:34-35; Galatians 3:26-29; Philippians 2:3-4; and, Revelation 7:9-10.

You and I cannot change anyone’s mind. God can change minds. So, encourage your friend to read Scripture for himself. As he does, pray that the Holy Spirit would lead him to understand and embrace the truth in faith.

What you will want to do is grow in your knowledge and understanding of the Bible so you can address your friend’s wrong ideas. Our goal is not to engage in theological arguments. Our goal is simply to testify to the truth of God’s word. After that, the results are out of our hands and beyond our control.

A question came up in a Bible class at our WELS church about whether or not Jesus accepted the wine vinegar offered to him on the cross. The consensus was (and acknowledged by the pastor) that Jesus did not accept it or "spit it out." However, John 19:30 tells us, "When he had received the drink, Jesus said, 'It is finished.'" I would be inclined to believe that, after suffering on the cross for six hours, his mouth was so dry that he could not have spoken his last words without first receiving the drink. Is that correct?

We get the complete picture of Jesus’ suffering, death and resurrection by looking at the parallel accounts of other evangelists.

Mark 15:23 speaks of the soldiers offering Jesus wine, mixed with myrrh. They made that offer when they were preparing to crucify the Lord. Previously, I offered this commentary: “Myrrh had the properties of dulling the senses and making a crucifixion victim more cooperative and less likely to put up any resistance as he was being fastened to a cross. When Jesus tasted the potion offered by the soldiers, he rejected it. He refused to reach the culmination of his messianic mission in a stupor; he was going to drink the cup of suffering for the world’s sins fully alert and in command of his senses. That meant he would refuse to drink what was in the soldiers’ cup.” (When Christ Walked Among Us)

At some point later, Jesus spoke the words recorded in John 19:30. He expressed his thirst—fulfilling prophecy (Psalm 22:15)—and then received wine vinegar, without myrrh, to be able to speak loudly and clearly the message the world needed to hear: “It is finished.” We praise him for that message!

In 1st Timothy, Paul explains the roles of men and woman. Men are head of the church and of their families. The man is supposed to guide and lead, but what about single females who live far away from their fathers? Who is supposed to guide and care for them? Also, Paul continues and states that woman are saved through childbirth. I know that only through Christ is one saved through faith in him. What does Paul mean by that? Not all woman can have children. What does that mean for them?

The principle of loving head and loving helper (1 Corinthians 11:3ff) has application in different ways to different people. In your current home situation, you have the responsibility of providing for your material needs and seeing to it that your spiritual needs are met. The fourth commandment is always in place, but the scope of application changes as parents and children grow older.

When it comes to women being saved “through childbearing” (1 Timothy 2:15), you are correct in stating that salvation comes about only through faith in Jesus Christ (Ephesians 2:8-9). Giving birth to children is not another means to salvation. So what does that expression mean? Let me pass along these thoughts from the People’s Bible Series for 1 Timothy, 2 Timothy and Titus: “Paul has been speaking about the woman’s specific role as given in creation. She had stepped out of that role, had been deceived by Satan and become a sinner. She need not, however, feel deprived or inferior as man’s helper. Salvation is hers, living in the role God had assigned to her. Unique and special in that role is bearing children and the mothering that goes with it. Living according to her God-given role will not in any way deprive her of the salvation that we all have alone through faith in the Lord Jesus Christ. A Christian woman will find genuine fulfillment as she conducts herself according to God’s plan.” (pages 44-45) That clear explanation illustrates why the People’s Bible Series is such a popular resource for Christians.

So, continue living your life in the joy and confidence that, through faith in Jesus, you are a child of God (Galatians 3:26-29)!

Who is the prostitute that resides on seven hills? I know that the office of the pope is considered an Antichrist, but Rome is situated on seven hills. Could a pope be the prostitute?

In places like Ezekiel 16 and 20, and Hosea 4 and 5, Scripture uses the imagery of sexual impurity and marital infidelity (prostitution) to illustrate unfaithfulness to God and his word. The prostitute sitting on seven hills (Revelation 17) is another one of those pictures. The seven hills of Rome point to the main Antichrist (2 Thessalonians 2).

Elsewhere on this web site, you can find our doctrinal statement on the Antichrist that explains why the Lutheran Confessions identified the papacy as the Antichrist.

I understand about the husband being the head of the home and submitting to his leadership. However, there is another Scripture passage, 1 Corinthians 14:34-35, that concerns me. I would like to know how far the idea expressed is to be implemented.

In This We Believe, a statement of belief of our church body, you can find this explanation and application of those verses: “We believe that women may participate in offices and activities of the public ministry except where that work involves authority over men (1 Timothy 2:11,12). This means that women may not serve as pastors nor participate in assemblies of the church in ways that exercise authority over men (1 Corinthians 11:3; 14:33-35).”

You can read that information in its context via this link.

I have two questions. Do you think when God created Adam and Eve, He knew and wanted them to commit the first sin, so that we would need to look for him as guidance because we are imperfect? Also, I was a visitor at a WELS congregation and participated in their Bible Study. Their theme for it was stewardship. Many of the discussion points that were brought up by others around me was that we need to continue to donate money (whether a lot or a little) to be good stewards of Christ. I personally felt that we could do other things (like donate our time to a food pantry or Habitat for Humanity) to be good stewards of Christ. Is it wrong to think like this, or does the only way to be a good steward simply involve money?

Being all-knowing (1 John 3:20), God certainly knew that Adam and Eve were going to fall into sin. Beyond that, God formulated his plan of salvation in eternity (Revelation 13:8). Still, we need to keep separate God’s foreknowledge and his will. The Bible makes it clear that God is not responsible for people’s sin (James 1:13-15). People are responsible for their own sins.

When it comes to Christian stewardship, the starting point is that God is the owner of everything (Psalm 24:1). We are stewards and managers of everything that God has entrusted to us: life, time, abilities, and money. We strive to manage all those gifts of God faithfully.

When we think of volunteering our time in our communities, we will want to steer clear of agencies that identify themselves as ecumenical Christian organizations. That is the case with the organization you mentioned. By their organizational structure and worksite practices, they pretend there is Christian unity when there is not, and they blur doctrinal differences among Christians.  Communities offer many other opportunities for service and involvement without compromising our faith.  Your second question is a reminder and encouragement for us to be “salt” and “light” in our lives (Matthew 5:13-16).

I am reading through the Lutheran Confessions (Book of Concord) and have come across the Latin term "ex opere operato." I looked it up and it apparently means "from the work worked" which doesn't make sense to me when I read it in context in the Confessions. Can you tell me what English phrase I can translate this to that is more meaningful?

“By the performance of the action” may get the idea across clearer. That phrase conveys the Roman Catholic teaching that the sacraments bring blessings to people simply because they are performed. (Think of masses being performed for the dead.)

With scriptural support, the Book of Concord condemns that teaching and emphasizes that faith is necessary to enjoy the administration of a sacrament.

God bless your reading of the Lutheran Confessions!

When people died before Jesus, where did they go?

Their souls went to heaven or hell. When a person’s life on earth comes to an end, the body and soul separate (Ecclesiastes 12:7) and judgment takes place (Hebrews 9:27). That has always been the case, without regard to the time of Jesus’ earthly life and ministry.

Recall that there were people in hell when Jesus descended into hell to proclaim his victory over sin, death and hell (1 Peter 3:18-20). Additionally, think of Elijah’s glorious entrance to heaven when his life on earth came to an end (2 Kings 2). Finally, Hebrews 11 describes the Old Testament “heroes of faith” as enjoying their heavenly home.

My sister says she made a decision for Christ. Where does this idea come from and are there some verses that I can share with her that show that God has chosen us?

Decision theology results from a rejection of infant baptism and original sin.

The Bible makes it very clear that we cannot bring ourselves to faith in Jesus Christ. For starters, we were spiritually dead people by nature (Ephesians 2:1), having no ability to do anything like deciding to believe in Jesus. Secondly, we were natural enemies of God because of sin and unbelief (Romans 8:7). We would not have wanted to bring ourselves to faith in God even if we had the ability. Finally, the Bible tells us that we were spiritually blind by nature (2 Corinthians 4:4), unable to see the truth about ourselves or God.

Scripture teaches plainly that Christian faith “is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God” (Ephesians 2:8). Jesus’ words to his first disciples apply to us as well: “You did not choose me, but I chose you” (John 15:16). The Holy Spirit is the one who enables us to confess Jesus Christ as our Savior (1 Corinthians 12:3).

Salvation is a gift from God. The faith that makes salvation our own is also a gift from God. God gets all the credit—and praise—for our salvation which we enjoy through faith in Jesus Christ.

If we are clothed with Christ, does God see our sins?

The two main teachings of the Bible, law and gospel, have different and opposite messages. The message of the law reveals God’s hatred of sin and sinners (Psalm 5:5); the message of the gospel reveals God’s love of sinners. Law and gospel are opposite, but not contradictory, messages.

As Christians, we are clothed with Christ (Galatians 3:26-27), as you noted. We are wrapped in the righteousness Jesus won and which is given to us in Spirit-worked faith. Through faith in Jesus, Christians are holy in the sight of God (Colossians 1:22; Hebrews 2:11; 10:10; 1 Peter 2:9).

Yet, we still have a sinful nature, don’t we? And we still continue to sin. That’s why our Lord, in the prayer that is named after him, instructed us to petition God for forgiveness for our sins (Matthew 6:12). That same Lord intercedes on our behalf when we do sin (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25).

God, who is omniscient, see all things—including our sins. The message of the law reminds us of that truth. The message of the gospel though is that, in the case of Christians, God sees people who are entirely and completely perfect in his sight through the righteousness Jesus won and which is theirs through faith. As Christians, we stand in God’s grace (Romans 5:2). Even while we are saints-sinners in this life, we have God’s own word that we are free from condemnation (Romans 8:1) and we are his dearly-loved children (1 John 3:1-3).

Please help me understand the differences in the accounts of Easter morning in the gospels of Matthew and John. Matthew tells us that the risen Jesus met Mary Magdalene and the other Mary on the road as they were returning from the empty tomb. John relates that Jesus came to Mary (although she at first thought he was the gardener) as she stood crying at the tomb. I've heard some say that Mary made two trips to the tomb and that the gospels are relating different trips. However, if that is the case, would not her reaction during the second trip have been far less shocked? Just wondering what, if anything, I'm missing. Of course I can always ask Mary myself when I meet her.

John 20:10-18 does provide us with information on Mary Magdalene’s second visit to the tomb on Easter Sunday morning.

Why didn’t she recognize her risen Lord? There is no specific answer within the context of John 20. Mark 16:12 adds the thought that the risen Lord appeared to people with his glorified body, and in his state of exaltation Jesus interacted with people in ways that were different than during his state of humiliation.

When the “gardener” in Joseph’s garden first addressed her as “Woman,” Mary did not recognize her risen Lord. But when he spoke her name, everything changed!

Like you, I too look forward to the time when we can meet and converse with people from the Bible!

Hello! I am curious what WELS' position is on speaking in tongues, laying on of hands in healing, etc. Thank you!

Elsewhere on this web site you will find a document called This We Believe. It is a statement of belief of our church body. The fifth chapter addresses “Good Works and Prayer.” In that chapter we state this:

“8. We believe that the Holy Spirit enables every believer to produce good works as fruits of faith (Galatians 5:22-25). The Holy Spirit gives every believer a new nature, or ‘new man,’ that cooperates with the Holy Spirit in doing good works. The Holy Spirit uses the gospel to motivate believers to do good works.

“9. The Holy Spirit also equips the church with all the spiritual gifts it needs for its well-being (1 Corinthians 12:4-11). During the beginning of the New Testament era, special charismatic gifts were given to the church, such as signs, miracles, and speaking in tongues. These gifts were connected with the ministry of the apostles (2 Corinthians 12:12). There is no evidence in Scripture that we today should expect the continuation of such charismatic gifts.”

This link will take you to that chapter where you can read those statements in their context.

We were studying Abraham and the Isaac sacrifice. One of the participants stated that "Humans from creation to present were aware of the 10 commandments." My reading is that the 10 Commandments were handed down in Exodus 20. Prior to that God had given no specific behavior instructions to man from the inception of creation, through Adam and Eve's sin, other than "to not eat of the Tree of Knowledge" and a follow-on in which Cain killed Abel, wherein murder is recognized. I may answer my own question here - but the tree of knowledge has never been portrayed to me as 'knowledge of the specifics of the 10 commandments. I would like some clarification as to when man actually knew all the wrongs God had ordained.

The Bible teaches that people have a natural knowledge of God’s law (Romans 2:14-15). People naturally know that it is wrong to steal, kill, lie, etc. Apart from the Bible, people will not know these prohibitions and commands as the “Ten Commandments,” but they will be familiar with the content of the Ten Commandments.

God initially “wrote” his law into the hearts of people, but as that knowledge became blurred over time, he spelled it out in the commandments he delivered through Moses (Exodus 20; Deuteronomy 5). The Ten Commandments remain a good summary of God’s moral law: his will for all people of all time.

I read "Predestination Chosen in Christ" and it explains predestination very well. Everything made sense and is backed by Scripture. But the one thing that I have trouble wrapping my mind around is God's election. I understand He has his own plan of whom He elects, and that He wants all to be saved. But the term election means some are chosen, while some are not. How can that be if he wants all to be saved?

Your question addresses a mystery that our human minds cannot comprehend. With the Bible’s teaching regarding salvation, we learn that God wants all to be saved (1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9). With the Bible’s teaching regarding election, we learn that God has elected some to salvation (Ephesians 1:3-14). When it comes to people being condemned instead of enjoying salvation, the Bible puts the blame squarely on people (Jeremiah 15:6; Matthew 23:37).

When we encounter teachings of the Bible that our minds cannot grasp, we do well to adopt the attitude of the apostle Paul in his doxology in the book of Romans: “Oh, the depth of the riches of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable his judgments, and his paths beyond tracing out! ‘Who has known the mind of the Lord? Or who has been his counselor?’ ‘Who has ever given to God, that God should repay them?’ For from him and through him and for him are all things. To him be the glory forever! Amen.” (Romans 11:33-36)

The Bible’s teaching of election to salvation has the purpose of assuring us that our salvation is a sure thing: it’s all God’s work from beginning to end. There is nothing mysterious about that.

Hello, I have a takeaway from Bible study this morning that has left me troubled. I am a WELS member, so my question following our Bible study was raised with my WELS pastor. Here we go: God is the creator of all things, which I take from the Word, to be everything. If "something" exists, then God created it. The discussion in Bible study was centered around, "God did not create evil, as it is not in him." I'm perfectly good with the fact that God does not do evil. I'm onboard and 100% believe that. But that does not mean that God does not have knowledge of it and didn't create it. He did create the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, didn't he? My argument is simply God created everything including the knowledge of evil. If God didn't create the "knowledge of evil," then it wouldn't exist. Where am I going wrong?

I think you want to revisit your statement: “If ‘something’ exists, then God created it.” That was true when God finished his work during creation week and pronounced it all “very good” (Genesis 1:31). What did not exist at that time was sin, evil.

When we get to the third chapter of Genesis, we encounter Satan, a fallen angel who appeared in the form of a serpent. Through his temptation, sin entered the world. Sin, evil, has existed ever since, but God did not create it. The Bible makes it clear that God is not responsible for the existence of sin (Psalm 5:4; James 1:13-15).

Certainly God knew that his perfect world would become corrupted by sin. While God could have prevented that from happening, he did not. The Bible does not tell us why. Still, God’s knowledge of future evil does not make him responsible for it.

The placement of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil—and the command not to eat from it—provided Adam and Eve with tangible opportunities to show their love and devotion to God. When they disobeyed God’s command, there were grave consequences. Yet, God promised a Savior (Genesis 3:15). Jesus Christ came into the world as true man in fulfillment of that promise to deliver us from sin, death and the power of the devil. Thanks be to God.

How does Genesis 2:7 prove immortality of the soul? It clearly says the man became a living soul; not that he had a living soul. All people, all living souls, sin. Ezekiel 18:4 says the soul that sins dies. Thanks.

Genesis 2:7 speaks of God giving life to Adam, just as God had given life to animals and birds (Genesis 1:30). Where Adam and Eve differed from the animal life around them, of course, was that they consisted of body and soul. Scripture passages like Ecclesiastes 12:7; Matthew 10:28; Matthew 16:26; 2 Corinthians 5:6-9; Revelation 6:9 and Revelation 20:4 speak clearly of the soul that exists beyond the death of the body.

Ezekiel 18:4 does speak of sin’s consequence: death. With the basic idea of “separation” in mind, the Bible speaks of three different kinds of death: physical, spiritual and eternal. Physical death means that the body and soul which were together during life on earth are separated. Spiritual death describes the unbeliever who is physically alive on earth right now but who is separated from the forgiveness of sins. Eternal death is the fate of an unbeliever whose life on earth comes to an end: the person is in hell, forever separated from God and his love.

Ezekiel 18:4 uses the word “soul” to describe a person. The 2011 NIV reflects that with this translation: “The one who sins is the one who will die.” We can use similar language when we speak of congregational membership totaling “850 souls.”

Physical death is not the end of a person. When physical death takes place, the body and soul are separated. There is immediate judgment (Hebrews 9:27). Souls are in heaven or hell, based on faith or unbelief in the heart. On the last day the Lord will raise the bodies of all who have died, reunite bodies with souls, and people—with body and soul—will be in God’s presence or be shut of his presence forever (John 5:28-29). This is why our Lord tells us to take care of the needs of our soul first and foremost (Matthew 16:26).

My question is about tithing. I'm running across people who seem to think that if you tithe that God will bless you generously in a financial way. They cite Malachi 3. I've read it, and it appears to say what they say it says. What does WELS say?

Tithing, in general, was the subject of the question asked and answered in the June 2017 “Light for our path” column in Forward in Christ. This link will take you to that column.

Regarding your specific question, God’s people had not been giving back to him as he had instructed them. Were the people thinking that they would have more possessions if they gave less than God commanded? That’s how human math can work. In Malachi 3 God instructed his people to give what he commanded and then see if he didn’t take care of them—and then some.

Elsewhere in the Bible we can find additional promises from God to bless faithful management of his possessions. Consider these verses from the book of Proverbs—3:9-10; 11:24; and, 22:9. See also what Jesus said in Luke 6:38.

An important point to keep in mind is the motivation behind the gifts that we give back to God. We do not give to get additional blessings from God. We give because we are thankful for God’s many gifts to us—chief among them is the gift of his Son, our Savior.

Hopefully you can see that it is not a matter of what WELS says about this but what Scripture says.

Please explain the meaning of the words in the Lord's Prayer that say "Thy kingdom come" so younger children will have an understanding of it. Thank you!

Allow me to pass along this meaning from The Simplified Catechism.

“Your kingdom come.

This Means

God’s kingdom is all the people who believe that Jesus died to save them.

God puts people in his kingdom even when we don’t pray.

God wants us to pray that we will always believe in Jesus and that many other people will believe in Jesus.

How does God’s kingdom come?

God uses his Word, the Bible, to give us his Holy Spirit.

The Holy Spirit puts faith in our hearts to believe God’s Word and do what it says.”

The Simplified Catechism is available from Northwestern Publishing House.

If you want another version, it could go something like this: “Lord, you made me a part of your kingdom and family even when I did not ask for that. You brought me into your family through the work of the Holy Spirit. He opened my eyes to see and believe that Jesus lived and died in my place. Through the word of God, keep me in your kingdom, help me live for you, and bring many more people into your kingdom.”